Perhaps this has been dealt with before. But the search function isn't as good as it used to be. The KJV renders the same Hebrew words differently in two passages. Why? Is one rendering superior to the other? Are both equally good? Why is there a difference between the two when the original is the very same? Isaiah 35:10 : And the ransomed of the Lord shall return, and come to Zion with songs and everlasting joy upon their heads: they shall obtain joy and gladness, and sorrow and sighing shall flee away. Isaiah 51:11 : Therefore the redeemed of the Lord shall return, and come with singing unto Zion; and everlasting joy shall be upon their head: they shall obtain gladness and joy; and sorrow and mourning shall flee away.