We have often discussed the differences between Isaiah 61:1-3 & Isaiah 42:7 and Luke 4:16-21. Dr. Cassidy is of the opinion that Jesus was reading aloud from a vorlage Hebrew text in use at the time. Can anyone elaborate on this? (I believe DC is on vacation in Palm Springs, according to his posts on another board) ( I hope he returns in time to add to this discussion.) I understand there was a vorlage Hebrew text used to make the LXX, but I don't know anything further. Any assistance will be appreciated.