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Voting and the COTUS

Discussion in 'Political Debate & Discussion' started by Salty, Dec 17, 2015.

  1. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    Several amendments protect the rights of different classes to vote in the United States.

    However, where does the COTUS require a voter to be a citizen?
     
  2. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Never seen that acronym before - it took me a second to figure it out.

    The 14th amendment seems to say, at least, that citizens cannot normally be denied that right - which means non-citizens may not have that right and it can be denied or abridged for non-citizens.

    I assume that states could issue that right.

    In Ireland citizens only can vote in national elections and referendum.
    European citizens can vote in local elections and elections to the European Parliament
    Non-Irish, Non-EU citizen can only vote in local elections. (I realise this is not germane to the discussion - just threw it is as a bit of free info :) )

    But when the right to vote at any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice President of the United States, Representatives in Congress, the executive and judicial officers of a state, or the members of the legislature thereof, is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such state, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such state.
     
    #2 NaasPreacher (C4K), Dec 17, 2015
    Last edited: Dec 17, 2015
  3. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    That is exactly correct.

    So even if Calif did pass such a law - it is not
    un-Constitutional. Might be Un-Americian
     
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  4. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    The US Constitution does not restrict the right to vote to citizens. That is left up to the states.

    Contrary to what many think, the Constitution does not provide an affirmative grant of the right to vote. It appears nowhere in the Constitution. Rather, through a series of Amendments, the Constitution places limitations on who and how the state and federal government who can be excluded from the franchise–race, gender, poll taxes, and age, etc.
     
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  5. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    very well put - TC
     
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