I would appreciate some input from those who hold a KJV-only view and others about what you think that Waite's first sentence in his response to the statement about Scrivener means. I take this sentence literally to mean what it says. I want to be as fair to him as possible and check and see if I am understanding his sentence in the way that those who hold a KJV-only view understand it. In his book entitled CENTRAL SEMINARY REFUTED ON BIBLE VERSIONS, D. A. Waite quoted the following statement from a book published by Central Seminary: "Scrivener lists several changes that have taken place in the KJV over the years" (p. 78). Waite then responded with the following comments: "I take these same examples in my study, THE KJV 1611 COMPARED TO THE PRESENT KJV. I list not only consecutively from Genesis to Revelation in the back, but also alphabetically the words which were changed. Also I list the words that have a substance change." (p. 78) He then listed some examples of changes.