The medical community says our DNA is inherited equally from both parents! For this discussion, let’s assume they are correct. I’m asking that we don’t fast-forward, but fast-backwards for a moment. Was Mary’s DNA passed on to Jesus? Or could her womb have been used without her passing on her DNA? An MD asked me, “If Jesus' physical body was not made in some way from Mary's DNA, then in what sense was He human?” Okay, let’s say Mary's DNA was passed on to Jesus, but no human male DNA was passed on. The only sinless human ever born was the One (Jesus) who had NO human father. Since Jesus was a sinless human, we have at least 4 reasonable(?) possibilities: 1) Mary was a normal human sinner, and her DNA did NOT contain her sin nature 2) Mary was NOT a normal human sinner (she was without sin), so her DNA did NOT contain any sin nature 3) Man’s sin nature MUST be passed through the DNA from BOTH parents (male and female both) 4) The Holy Spirit simply “planted” a sinless male human fetus in Mary’s womb If you’re still breathing, what do you think? .