Now before you say 'No that is blasphemy! Jesus was no sinner', consider these following notes: 1. According to definition of 'sin' in James 1:14-15, a man is enticed and drawn away by his own lust and when that lust has conceived, it brings forth sin and death. Now by this definition, Adam and Eve sinned because they were drawn away by their own lusts (their desires to be like God in knowing good and evil) which thus conceived and brought forth sin and death [eating of tree of knowledge). 1 John 2:16 defines in clear detail the worldly 'sinful nature' lusts for evil that drove Eve to crave the tree of knowledge fruit: Genesis 3:5-6 - For God knows that in the day you eat of the tree of knowledge, then your eyes shall be opened and you shall be as gods knowing good and evil. And when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she took of the fruit thereof and did eat... 1 John 2:16 - For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes and the pride of life is not of the Father but is of this world. The sin nature thus does not render one a sinner...gratifying the evil desires of the sin nature renders one a 'sinner'. 2. Jesus asked God the Father in Gethsemane to 'take the cup of wrath away from him'. Now consider that if his request had been granted, then there would have been no cross to fulfill the messianic prophecies in Isaiah 53 and Psalm 22. God would have thus been a liar and his deity nullified. Jesus' request was thus clearly driven by his own sin nature/desire for evil which he overcame by declaring that there was no other way for him but to fulfill the Father's will and drink of the cup of wrath (Matthew 26:42). In this way, he never allowed his 'worldly' desire for evil to conceive (James 1:14-15) and thus never sinned. What do you all think?