Was Jesus KJV-only?

Post deleted by AVBunyan after reconsidering the obsurdity of the thread.

 

What's so absurd, Sir, about...TELLING THE TRUTH?

 

Well, Bunyan, I hope that you know the absurdity is the realization that Jesus spoke Aramaic/Hebrew and not 17th century English.

It is possible that koine Greek was spoken as a second language (or lingua franca) in Israel because the entire known world had been "helenized" through the conquests of Alexander the Great 3 centuries previous to the birth of Christ.

The world at the time of Jesus was then being "latinized" as it was now the Romans turn in the conquering of the known world.

Thus the three inscriptions over the cross in Hebrew, Latin and Greek.

The absurdity is that Jesus spoke 1611 Elizabethan-Jacobean period English.

However, being God in the flesh and omniscient, He no doubt knew all languages even those which would develope. But, there are those who might say that He (in His humanity) may have willingly denied Himself (in His humanity/kenosis) that knowledge.

But that is a matter of speculative theology and a debate for another time (one which would probably not end well anyway).


HankD

 

Do you believe this - who believes this? I don't believe Jesus spoke 1611 English!?!?!!!!??? The crowd I run with doesn't believe this.

Why is this even being discussed? Mercy - get real.

You folks are obsessed with this subject - fiind something else to talk about. The fact that you can't leave this KJV only issue alone shows the insecurity of what you believe.

 

Now THAT is absurd. We believe in faith that God is able to preserve His word and provide it in versions understandable to every generation. Do you have that same faith? The absurdity and the insecurity is in believing God promised preservation of His word but then stopped preserving His word when the KJV came along in 1611. This would mean that God broke His promise. The fact that we "can't leave this KJV only issue alone" is brought about by those of you who keep insisting in spreading the error of the KJVO myth. As long as the KJVO myth is being spread here, there will be those who stand against this myth with truth. When you folks stop spreading this KJVO myth then we will leave it alone. The continuation or the ceasing of refutation of the KJVO myth depends on you KJVO followers. It's really pretty simple, AVBunyan - we stand against the KJVO myth with truth. As long as the myth is there, truth will be used to refute it. If you don't want to be faced with truth regarding the KJVO myth, then maybe you should take your onlyism somewher else where others accept your myth - here it will be refuted with the truth as long as it goes on.

 

The idea of this thread was Jesus a "Single Versionist." I understand how the title might have been seen as provocatory since it is obvious that Jesus did not use the KJV.

If someone wants to start a discussion on Jesus being a "single versionist" then feel free to do so.

This thread is closed.