On another thread I commented that death came through sin and sin in the world before the law was given. This was quickly countered as unbiblical by several brothers. I respect that these men have different interpretations than I, and so as not to hijack that thread I thought I’d see if someone could explain their objection here. Like John Stott on this verse, I thought it clear (I don’t fully see the grounds for objection). I believe that sin came into the world through Adam, and death through sin. Death spread to all men because all have sinned (we are all sinners), but that sin is not counted (as transgression of the law) where there is none given. So sin and death existed (from Adam to Moses) apart from the law (sin apart from being a transgression). I base this on Rom 5:12-14. That passage was rejected on another thread by a few brothers who “prefer the Apostles’ ideas” that everyone who makes a practice of sinning also practices lawlessness; sin is lawlessness. (1 Jn 3:4). I am not claiming (no one is claiming) that we are not transgressors when we sin. What I am saying is that those who were not under the law were still sinners and still suffered the consequence of Adam’s sin which is death (Paul is setting the stage, so to speak, for Jesus as the “New Adam”). But I do not see John as negating Paul (they are not contradictory statements) and I do not believe there exists a primacy of Johannine over Pauline theology as all Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, reproof, correction, and training. Was sin in the world before the law was given, yet not "counted" where there is no law? If not, please explain.