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Featured Were Old Testament Saints Born Again?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Jedi Knight, Dec 27, 2014.

?
  1. Yes

    6 vote(s)
    66.7%
  2. No

    2 vote(s)
    22.2%
  3. Not sure

    1 vote(s)
    11.1%
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  1. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    The poll lacked the correct answer.

    The correct answer is, Yes and No.

    Yes, the OT saints were positionally born again due to the promise of the Father to send the Son to be the propitiation for their sins which was symbolized by the animal sacrifices.

    No, in the sense that they, like us, are not yet born again into the new life that awaits all of God's people in the new heavens and new Earth.
     
  2. Jedi Knight

    Jedi Knight Well-Known Member
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    Nope...."gibberish" seems pretty rude.
     
  3. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Jedi Knight
    How do you expect to be taken seriously when you make grammatical errors regarding words that should be mastered by the 4th grade? :(
     
  4. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    Scripture tells us:

    James 2:23: And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.

    Genesis 15:6. And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness.

    So we have an unregenerate man, one who is Spiritually dead, declared righteous and the Friend of God. Remarkable!
     
  5. Jedi Knight

    Jedi Knight Well-Known Member
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    Grammar police pulls me over......I roll down my window....."yes officer?"
     
    #65 Jedi Knight, Dec 28, 2014
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 28, 2014
  6. Jedi Knight

    Jedi Knight Well-Known Member
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    (you're) right officer.........I should be ashamed of myself and not taken serious.
     
    #66 Jedi Knight, Dec 28, 2014
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 28, 2014
  7. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Please explain what is the PRACTICAL impact or application of POSITIONAL regeneration versus actual regeneration?
     
  8. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Paul says he was justified PRIOR TO being circumcised rather than "in" circumcision part of his life and that is a long ways BEFORE Pentecost.
     
  9. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    I have no idea what point you are attempting to make. I did not mention circumcision which has nothing to do with justification!
     
  10. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Circumcision is an external type of the new birth. It is a divine ordinance or type, just as sacrifices were a divine ordinance or type. NEITHER obtained literal remission of sins and righteousness which are the essence of justification (Rom. 4:6-8) or the "blessedness" obtained by faith. Abraham was justified, his sins fully remitted and righteousness fully imputed by the object of his faith which is the promise of the coming Christ and it was obtained NOT IN CIRCUMCiSION or that part of his life occuring after being circumcised (Rom. 4:11).

    Note the choice Paul provides "in circumcision" or "in uncircumcision" when actual justification was obtained (Rom. 4:9-10).
     
  11. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    The primary distinction is that when we are finally and completely born again, the body, soul, and spirit will all be completely and perfectly sanctified. Such is not yet the case. :)
     
  12. Jedi Knight

    Jedi Knight Well-Known Member
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    I did ask you a question....did I get lost?
     
  13. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Jesus says the object of new birth is the "spirit" of man not the flesh. There was no quickening of the flesh in Ephesians 2:1! The body is not even mentioned in Matthew 19 where "regeneration" is found outside of "spirit" context. The scriptures call the change in the flesh as glorification and removal of "corruption" by putting on incorruption but not new birth.

    Old Testament saints were born of the Spirit - meaning their spirit was quickened so they no longer in spiritual death or existing spiritually "in the flesh."
     
  14. Jedi Knight

    Jedi Knight Well-Known Member
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    Exactly! :type:
     
  15. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    This is the Calvinist view, and is mistaken.

    No verse or passage has been cited. The OT saints were not made perfect before Christ died on the cross. To be made perfect, i.e. holy and blameless, a person must be born anew in Christ.

    Colossians 1:22, "yet He has now reconciled you in His fleshly body through death, in order to present you before Him holy and blameless and beyond reproach—"

    Hebrews 11:40, "because God had provided something better for us, so that apart from us they [OT Saints] would not be made perfect."
     
  16. Jedi Knight

    Jedi Knight Well-Known Member
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    Good for them.
     
  17. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Close but mistaken. Abraham was not declared righteous. It was Abraham's belief in the LORD, i.e. his faith, that was reckoned as righteousness. So yes, Abraham was spiritually dead, yet put his faith in God.

    If Abraham had been regenerated, then the blood of Christ would have removed his sin, and he would have been holy, blameless and perfect. Not how scripture actually reads.
     
  18. OldRegular

    OldRegular Well-Known Member

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    As I said circumcision has nothing to do with justification!
     
  19. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Justification includes remission of sin or one cannot be justified before God and includes righteousness that the Law approves - imputed righteousness or they cannot be justified before God.

    Have you read Romans 4:6-8 where in both remission of sins and imputed righteousness are contextually defined as inclusive of justification? Apparently not, because both David and Abraham are called "blessed" because they POSSESSED both. Abraham was "blessed" with remission of sins and imputed righteousness while he was "in uncirucmision" and that is something he already "HAD" Rom.( 4:11) long before the cross. Try reading these scriptures!
     
  20. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Yes it does. It proves that justification was in possession and already "had" (Rom. 4:11) while he was in "uncircumcision" proving justification was not only actually obtained prior to the cross but prior to any divine rites in the life of the justified before Calvary.
     
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