I have a friend arguing that of the 5,200 Greek manuscripts that exist today, 99% of the text agrees word-for-word with the 1611 King James Bible. Only 1% agree with the other Bible versions. Of course this is from Riplinger and is quite deceiving, making one think that in 99% of the text, the modern versions differ from the manuscript evidence but that's incorrect. So what is the true differences? How much do the KJV and MVs differ from each other, how much are insignificant differences ("Jesus Christ" vs. "Christ Jesus") and how many are more significant (the "missing verses", longer texts and harmonizations)? What is the true percentage of difference between them?