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What did Jesus leave behind when He took on human form?

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by covenant, Apr 10, 2005.

  1. Paul33

    Paul33 New Member

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    Correct yabba!

    Grudem talks to this issue, and he admits that he doesn't understand it. How can Jesus Christ in his human body be limited to one place at one time and yet in his divine nature be omnipresent. I don't know, but I believe it, because Jesus did not cease being fully God in his divine nature.

    So Jesus can speak of leaving this world (human nature), but bing present where two or three are gathered (divine nature).

    Jesus in his human nature did not know the hour of his return, but in his divine nature he was omniscient.
     
  2. covenant

    covenant New Member

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    It is not that he "chose" to be omnipresent - it is that He was still omnipresent according to Joh 3:13

    As I said in my previous post, omnipresence is not really the question

    Luk 22:69 "From now on the Son of Man shall sit at the right hand of the power of God.

    When scripture refers to Christ as "sitting at the right hand of the Father" it is saying the same as what Christ said on the cross;

    The Pre-Mill view says, in essence, "it is not finished, Christ has to come back to earth to finish the work he couldn't do." The Pre-Mill view gives "the power of the gun" to the Jews and not to Christ's finished work of the Cross.

    Busy day - Later!
     
  3. yabba

    yabba New Member

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    It is not that he "chose" to be omnipresent - it is that He was still omnipresent according to Joh 3:13

    </font>[/QUOTE]Again you miss my point. I am not saying Jesus was ever not omnipresent. Jesus is God and thus is who He was and ever will be. I am saying Jesus chose not to implement His omnipresence(even though He still had it) while on earth.
     
  4. Paul33

    Paul33 New Member

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    Clearly God the Son in a human body as the person of Jesus Christ could not be present everywhere, yet his divine nature still possessed the attribute of omnipresence.
     
  5. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    I'm getting dizzy reading these posts, so, I'll repeat what I said before: personally I believe He was omni-everything but willing limited those perogatives unless via permission of the Father.

    HankD
     
  6. covenant

    covenant New Member

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    Could someone elaborate on what is intended by the term ruling with a "rod of iron" means to those holding a Pre-mill view of it. I have not given this much thought before.

    [​IMG]
     
  7. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    Just what it sounds like. 100% totalitarian control by King Jesus. You muck up, you die.

    Analogy is to a potter/tinker who made a mold out of hardened sand/clay, then poured and formed a vessel. When done with the mold, he would use his rod and smash/destroy it.

    King Jesus will rule from the throne of his father David in Jerusalem with a rod of iron (strongest metal known at Bible-writing time - we might say molybdenum today!!)

    "You will punish them with a rod of iron; you will scatter them in pieces like a potter's apparatus." (GET Real Bible, Psalm 2:9)
     
  8. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Amen Dr Bob!

    HankD
     
  9. covenant

    covenant New Member

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    </font>
    • But who does He rule? Christians? Unregenerate man? Both together?
      On earth?</font>
    </font>
    • Where is his throne located? Where is the temple?</font>
    </font>
    • What do you mean by totalitarian control? Is it a dictatorship like Sadaam Hussein?</font>
    </font>
    • If someone "mucks up" they die? How? Physically or eternally? Or both?</font>
    </font>
    • Was not Jesus crowned King of the Jews with a "crown made of thorns?"
      Is he not already reigning as King from heaven?</font>

    Do Christians get smashed and destroyed too if they "muck up?"

    Jesus was crowned King, and was from the line of David was He not? Did Christ not enter His Kingdom already?
    Jesus assured the penitent thief that he would enter that Kingdom that day, did he not?

    Was not Jerusalem "punished" and then scattered in 70 a.d?

    :rolleyes:
     
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