What Did jesus mean By use Of "We" IN Chaper 3 Gospel of John?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions/Translations' started by DaChaser1, Feb 20, 2012.

  1. DaChaser1

    DaChaser1
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    As we were studing chaper 3:1-21 last night in our cell group, and some asked why Jesus used "We" while talking?

    Also, the HCSB was ONLY version there being used that translated We as in capitals, and we went to genesis, and saw that it was ONLY version to put in Capital "Our" when referencing God talking aout creating man?
     
  2. Van

    Van
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    Reply to DaChaser1;

    The commentaries offer a variety of options:

    1. Royal we

    2. Jesus and John the Baptist

    3. Jesus and those traveling with Him

    But what seemed right to me was the idea that Jesus was talking about those who had witnessed Christ's miracles and therefore knew and understood the gospel of Christ.

    If we (pun intended) look at our verse, John 3:11, we see several things:

    1. Whoever the we is, they understand what they are saying, they are not pushing incomprehensible doctrine.

    2. Whoever the we is, they have witnessed Christ's miracles which authenticated His good news.
     
  3. DaChaser1

    DaChaser1
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    Think could see also jesus claiming to be God talking, as lnking with the genesis passage, and with Him declaring to be Son of man!
     
  4. jonathan.borland

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    This is a very special passage, and not all that uncommon in the Gospel of John.

    John 3:11 is not unlike John 1:14, 16, and many other passages in this Gospel.

    The hair-raising thing is how John mingles his evangelistic message with the words of Jesus. One sees this in John 3:7, where the eye-piercing gaze of the prophetic narrator turns from the story and interacts directly with his readers (us!): "You must be born again!" The message is no longer toward Nicodemus but toward the readers, namely, us. The same thing occurs in John 3:11: "You do not receive our witness!" We the readers do not receive the witness. So here (and in the powerful verses that follow) the words are the inspired prophet's, and they are shining as a laser beam directly through the hearts of us, the readers, the Holy Spirit using them to convict and lead us to saving repentance through faith in Jesus Christ.
     
  5. DaChaser1

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    many hold that John 3:16 starts a "break", in which the writer interjects his own inspired commentary to what the preceding verses would mean to us who would the receipts in the future of this book?

    Would this tie into what you described going on?
     
  6. jonathan.borland

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    Yes, except that the prophet's interaction with the readers is far more pervasive. Unfortunately, literary critics use these features to argue that many different hands have touched the work and we don't know when Jesus is speaking and when John is speaking, basically, we can't know the actual event but only the author's depiction of the event. But this is just the point! We are not to reconstruct the historical event with the words (although the historical event is obviously true); the words are the event -- God breathing and speaking directly to us! Now the evangelicals often seem to hang on to many study habits fostered by the German rationalists, but thankfully they reject all the bad consequences. However, what this has produced is a system of trying to search out the historical event from any and all sources. The problem is that this merely clouds the focus of the text, the emphasis of the inspired author who is in reality the Holy Spirit himself.
     
  7. DaChaser1

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    the critics who tend to try to "piecemeal' botht the OT/NT books fail to accept the supernatural aspect of the process!

    HOWEVER the final text God gave to us was compiled and put together, the final text is supernatural preserved/inspired, and in the original indeed full inerrant and full revealtion from God!
    On the other hand...

    Sometimes we evangelics 'afraid" that God might have used comoliation/re editing in the process, as we tend to see that as "denying' the scriptures!
     
  8. Van

    Van
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    OTOH, we could accept John 3:11 as written and not speculate beyond the we referred to others, which probably included John the Apostle, the inspired author of our passage.
     
  9. preachinjesus

    preachinjesus
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    All of the pronouns and verbs are in the plural form (v. 11) might be one of reasons.

    One of the "eccentricities" of the HCSB is an odd approach to capitalization.
     

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