What difference does 270 years make?

Is there any documentation for these outlandish claims??? Or is this just another thing that someone made up to try to support an unbiblical doctrine??

 

I'd say just look at history. When the other versions came out, look at the wars that took place. Look at the schools when they took the Bible out, and then prayer. The modern versions have had more wrong than right and I'm sure there's much more.

 

Sorry Precepts, I fail to see your point. Most of us who are not KJVO appreciate the great influence the KJV has had on the English speaking world, and to some extent, will have, along with other BV's as well.
Point #1 is misnomer in my view, because the KJV did not need for the most part to be revised.When it says in point #1 "dared" that's a loaded word. I wonder what they mean by "dared" unless they see any updated version or revision in paranoia.
Point #4 is true up to a point. The reason why the KJV has been read, studied, etc more than any other language owes its thanks to the missionary endeavors of England and America over the last couple of centuries. To say the KJV has been read even more than the original languages doesn't matter, because the KJV is a translation of those languages, i.e. that is its purpose. The case may be made that the world's foreign language BV's are translated from the original languages more than the KJV, does that imply (rightly) that the originals have been used more than the KJV?
Bro Kevin

 

Any evidence of the last three claims (even if one was able to produce it tangibly rather than repeat vague, opinionated generalities) would be circumstantial at best.

As for the first claim, "major" is the key word in the sentence. KJV-only Waite lists *55* new English translations (i.e. not later editions of the KJV) done between 1611 and 1881 (*101* if you count only NTs), and although most are not "major", some debatably are, such as Webster's 1833, Wesley's 1755, Darby's 1871, American Bible Society's 1848, Young's 1863, etc.

Lastly, *none* of the claims do anything to prove perfection or exclusivity of the KJV.

 

Must we list all the wars and other evils of society between 1611 and 1880? Human society has always had problems (evils) and the cause is sin - not any particular Bible version.

 

You mean like the … Thirty Years War, English Civil War, War of European powers against the Turks,, French and Indian Wars (to 1763), The War of Spanish Succession, Seven Years War, the American Revolution, the Napoleonic Wars, the French Revolution, The War of 1812, the Mexican American War, the Crimean War, the American Civil War … and I am tired of listing them.

Every war started after the advent of modern versions has been started by non-English speaking countries who wouldn’t have any idea what the KJV or the MVs were talking about. Since the advent of modern versions, there has not been one war on US soil. Does that mean the MVs caused that???

Do you seriously think that your post was an argument for the KJV? Did you not think before you said it? Did you not think that there would be many people who would see through your argument in less time than it took you to post it?

It is unfortunate that this type of argumentation is so prevalent.

 

I suspect Luther's translation beats the KJV on both point 2 and point 4.

 

I am certain the Latin Vulgate pulverises the KJV on most of point 4.

 

Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!

What we can see however is the KJV resulted in great revivals. Sadly, we cannot say this same thing of the modern versions, but the opposite of true revival - apostacy.

May the Lord continue to bless you all richly.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle

 

I think we can say that about modern versions. I have seen God greatly use modern versions. The power is not the translation but in the word of God itself. Apostacy has not come from a modern version, but from man's rebellion against God.

[ February 27, 2004, 05:42 PM: Message edited by: Pastor Larry ]

 

No you can't conclude that at all ... We should rather conclude that MVs come from those with a passion to see people understand God's word.

No exactly ... Apostacy increased as man got away from God's word.

It is not a fact, it is not true. There is no connnection to be made there. Sorry ... study history ... that will clear up this nonsense ...

 

post hoc ergo propter hoc

 

Remember population has been growing exponentially, which favors the KJV. Most Catholics didn't read the vulgate, including many in the clergy. I understand it was mainly just another dead relic to be venerated.

 

Precepts: "2. The King James Bible dominated the time
in history characterized by the greatest Bible preaching
and teaching, missionary work, evangelism, church building,
and doctrinal development the world has ever known."

Too bad that hardly anybody in the Russian Orthodox Church,
Siberia, or Northern China could read English. This really
kinda lessoned the effect

 

THE ALMANAC OF THE CHRISTIAN WORLD 1991-1992
Edition (Tyndale House Pub., 1990), page 317:

"c. 1855 - Russian surge of world mission: Orthodox
missiologist N.I. Timinsky (1821-1891) works out
scientific basis for missionary work; vast
missionary expnace: 1870-1917.
Orthodox Missionary Society organized (St Petersburg,
Russia); 1917, its world mission is destroyed by
the Bolshevik Revolution."

Or was it destroyed by that nasty 1881 MV?