What Do You Think About Praying in the Spirit?

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by RedemptionAddiction, Oct 26, 2006.

  1. RedemptionAddiction

    RedemptionAddiction
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    [FONT=Times New Roman, Times, Serif]I'm really interested on getting some insight on this subject of "praying in/with the Spirit." Paul makes mention of it in 1Corinthians 14:2-18 in reference to praying in tongues. Then he tells the whole church to pray in the Spirit with all kinds of prayer in Ephesians 6:18. Then Jude also makes mention of it in his book verse 20.[/FONT]
    [FONT=Times New Roman, Times, Serif][/FONT]
    [FONT=Times New Roman, Times, Serif]My first question is . . . It seems the only place in scripture that praying in/with the Spirit is defined is praying in tongues mentioned in 1Cor 14. Does anyone else know of a scripture that defines it?[/FONT]
    [FONT=Times New Roman, Times, Serif][/FONT]
    [FONT=Times New Roman, Times, Serif]My other question was, Paul tells us all to pray with all prayer (Grk-each and every kind of prayer). So if God wants us to pray with every kind of prayer, then would this include praying in tongues, since praying in tongues is a kind of prayer?[/FONT]
     
  2. donnA

    donnA
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    Since the Holy Spirit decides who gets what gifts, and He also gives those gifts, then He choses who will have tongues and who will not. Becasue if man is the one creating the prayer in tonuges then it isn't genuine, it is fake.
    Leave what only God can do up to Him.
     
  3. genesis 12-15

    genesis 12-15
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    "Praying in the spirit" simply means to pray from the spiritual nature, not the fleshly nature. It has nothing to do with an "unknown language." Much words from the flesh produce zilch. From the spirit one is given an audience in the very Throne Room of God.
     
  4. Jack Matthews

    Jack Matthews
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  5. tamborine lady

    tamborine lady
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    Praying in the Spirit

    :type:

    Did you really think you would get an unbiased answer here?

    Peace,

    Tam
     
  6. RedemptionAddiction

    RedemptionAddiction
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    Maybe someone could help me with this . . . Paul asks some questions in 1Cor 12:29-30. . . . Then people have concluded that because the answer to the questions are a "no" this therefore means that God wants it to be this way. Why have we drawn this conclusion? Especially since among the questions, he asks "Are all prophets?" But then says plainly in 1Cor 14:31 "You may all be prophets (look up Grk for word 'prophesy' in this verse)" And just the same Paul asked "Do all speak with tongues?" And the conclusion has been "Not everyone can speak/pray in tongues" Even though Ephesians 6:18 tells ALL believers to pray with ALL KINDS OF PRAYER (and praying in tongues is a kind of prayer, see 1Cor 14).

    . . . So if someone could help me with this reasoning "Paul asks 'are all prophets? Do all speak with tongues' This means God does not want everyone to be prophets or speak/pray with tongues".

    Maybe I'm oversimplifying, but I think the average Christian would easily be able to note that just because not all do it, does not mean God does not want them to. Just like not all Christian abstain from sin, but this does not mean God does not want them to.
     
  7. av1611jim

    av1611jim
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    R/A;
    You have been answered.
    1Co 14:14
    For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful.
    1Co 14:15
    ΒΆ What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.
    1Co 14:16
    Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest?
    1Co 14:17
    For thou verily givest thanks well, but the other is not edified.
    1Co 14:18
    I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all:
    1Co 14:19
    Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding, that by my voice I might teach others also, than ten thousand words in an unknown tongue.
    1Co 14:20
    Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men.

    Paul's point is simple to understand. He was an international evangelist. He spoke with other tongues more than all they at Corinth because God gave him the gift of speaking foreign languages without learning them in order that he could preach the Gospel to people of other language groups. The people at Corinth were practicing the pagan practice of glossolalia. Ecstatic utterances in a religious fever. Their practice had nothing to do with God. Paul wrote his epistle to the Corinthian church to correct abuses of spiritual matters. Tongues was one of those things they abused. They were practicing a counterfeit to what really happened on Pentecost at Jerusalem in Acts 2.

    Today, in the Western Church there is no need for 'the gift of tongues'. Why? Because everybody speaks a common tongue in virtually every church you visit. And where there is not a common language, we have interpreters. No need for miraculous sign gifts.

    1Co 1:22
    For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom:

    1Co 14:22
    Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe

    Just believe the Scripture and you wont get messed up.
     
  8. RedemptionAddiction

    RedemptionAddiction
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    AV1611

    Thank you, but with all due respect I reject the idea that tongues are simply forgein languages. I understand from Acts 2 and 1Cor 14 that they include foreign languages . . . But there is also a language that you can pray with with your spirit that no one understands. 1Cor 14:2 is clear on this. So as far as what tongues are . . . I'm not wondering about that.

    Now . . .


    [FONT=Times New Roman, Times, Serif]*****One More Question*****[/FONT]​
    [FONT=Times New Roman, Times, Serif][/FONT]
    [FONT=Times New Roman, Times, Serif]I asked this in a previous thread and no one really seemed to address it . . . . But could someone please explain to me how Paul could only be expressing his personal desire when he said "I wish you all spoke with tongues" when the scripture says that all scripture is inspired by God? Was Paul inspired by God to say that? And if he was not, how can we say all scripture is inspired?[/FONT]
    [FONT=Times New Roman, Times, Serif][/FONT]
    [FONT=Times New Roman, Times, Serif]I'm extremely curious about this and have been wondering about it for sometime[/FONT]
     
  9. billwald

    billwald
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    '"No" is an answer ' is a cop-out. If person gets more "no" answers than "yes" answers then he should try asking for what he doesn't want?
     

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