What Does .....

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by wpe3bql, Oct 25, 2015.

  1. wpe3bql

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    May 15, 2015
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    ..... John 6:22-69 mean to you as it applies to your concept of how the OT Jewish Passover is related to the NT Lord's Supper?

    One of the many blessings I have as a member of Lighthouse Christian Fellowship (LCF) ( www.lighthouseministries.org ) in Antioch (a/k/a SE Nashville TN) is to attend not only a 0900 - 1000 SS, + the 1000-ish Sunday Corporate Worship Service, but also a smaller, more family-oriented (parents WITH their children) fellowship known as "Lighthouse Noon" that starts about 45 - 50 or so minutes after the larger Sunday AM "Corporate" worship ends.

    This "2d service" is usually a more "devotional - oriented" one cf. the 1000 - 1100ish one because not too many 11 YO & younger children would probably "get much" from a service that, e.g., dealt w/ "An exegesis that compares & contrasts the various eschatological interpretations that are present in modern-day Christianity with emphasis on how each originated and developed through to the 21st Century and why both of the 'other two' are heretical and why the one that's left is THE ONLY ORTHODOX one that could ever be!"

    However, since the 1st or 2nd Sunday of 2015, LCF's Elder for Youth & Family Development has been a series of messages on how some of the OT practices can be viewed as "pictures" of various NT realities.

    Today (10/25/2015) "Big Mack" (He's about 4.99 feet tall & his last name is .... (Well, U can probably figure that one out yourself!), taught on John 6:22 - 65 on how the manna of Exodus 16 pre-figured the elements of our Lord's Supper that 1 Corinthians 11:23 - 28.

    As in the aforementioned eschatology above, the sub-set of ecclesiology that deals with this ordinance has developed at least three major views with regard to implementing/serving the Lord's Supper. [For now, we'll skip over the "church-splitting contents of 'the cup!'"]

    Having posted all the above, I'd love to read y'all's comments/ideas (but NOT condemnation!!) on "Big Mack's" concept of how the OT manna did/did not relate to at least ONE of the two elements of the Lord's Supper.

    And, maybe while y'all are doing so, you might want to mediate on what it really means to you personally to be in a state of NOT partaking in an "unworthy" manner!

    --- 73's & DX,
    WPE3BQL (Formerly KTN4EG)

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