God is love. I doubt that any on the list would argue that point. The question that needs to be addressed is does love necessitate God to provide a Savior to man? Is God under any obligation, or has he been, to save sinful man? Is there any compelling necessity that coerces God into saving anyone? I would render a guess that most would say no to this question. I may be wrong. If in fact I am right, I have yet another question. If God is not under compulsion to save anyone, is He under compulsion to utilize equal means to save some? In other words, if love does not necessitate even saving one, what attribute or characteristic of God demands that He use the same means to save everyone? Many seem to be of the opinion that if God’s love is for all, that He must grant the same opportunity to all. What if, in His wisdom, knowing the beginning from the end, God would see that it is not in the best interest of the entire universe to allow the same opportunity to all, or that something just as or more important can an dwill be accomplished by limiting the means by which His salvation is offered? I am not speaking only of salvation, but of other privileges as well. Take for instance His choice of Abraham in the OT, and his descendents as the race of people to grant the benefits of the covenants God made with them as opposed to making a covenant with the entire human race? Even when Christ came, He specifically stated that He had come for the ‘lost sheep of the house of Israel,’ and did not offer His message of hope to the gentiles, at least generally and directly at that time. Just as the marriage supper was only at first for the specific invited guest, the gentiles were not afforded the same opportunity as the Jews UNTIL the Jews rejected the offer. Was God unfair during this time or the previous dispensation to the gentiles? I am in no way suggesting that God has arbitrarily selected a few to be saved and selected others to be damned as Calvinism purports. What I am suggesting is that God has obviously placed into effect a plan of redemption, that although it is indeed sufficient for the salvation of the entire human race, was not implemented in a universal fashion or shared equally on a universal basis. Do we, as finite humans, have to understand why God has chosen to act as He obviously has dealing with salvations offer in order to believe that however He has chosen to act is indeed in line with not being a respecter of persons, due to the fact, that as I began this post laid out that he is under obligation to save none, therefore not under any obligation to save all in the same manner or afford all the very same level of opportunity for salvation? Cannot God have reasons, consistent with His Infinite love yet hidden from the purview of finite man, that might compel Him to offer salvation just as He has done, in a manner seen at least by us as not being universal in nature? Is that not precisely what God stated when he said, “Ro 9:18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.”? I am again in no way suggesting that God forces some to damnation due to the fact Scripture says ‘whom He will He hardeneth.” That is the topic for another thread. I am trying to limit the scope of this thread to issue of why God has chosen the means by which to offer His plan of salvation and if in fact it is within the scope of Scripture and reason to believe that the opportunity of hearing the gospel message is less than universal, yet God is indeed love, remains NOT a respecter of persons, and indeed does love the entire world. He has yet still offered and made an atonement that is indeed sufficient for the salvation of the whole world.