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Featured Where Did The Name Jesus Come From

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by HisWitness, Jun 26, 2013.

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  1. HisWitness

    HisWitness New Member

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    my main question for this whole thread is----if the original name of Christ was pronounceable and able to be understood--why was it needed to be translated by man ???
     
  2. thisnumbersdisconnected

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    [​IMG]

    Good grief!

    http://christianity.about.com/od/faqhelpdesk/f/jesusoryeshua.htm

    Yeshua is the Hebrew name for the Lord. It means "Yahweh [the Lord] is Salvation." The English spelling of Yeshua is Joshua. However, when translated from Hebrew into the Greek language, the name Yeshua becomes Iēsous. The English spelling for Iēsous is “Jesus.”

    Basically, what this means is Joshua and Jesus are the same name. One is translated from Hebrew into English, the other from Greek into English. It is also interesting to note, the names "Joshua" and "Isaiah" are essentially the same names as Yeshua in Hebrew. They mean "Savior" and "the salvation of the Lord."
     
  3. HisWitness

    HisWitness New Member

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    because he wont answer mine--

    he always refuses to answer other peoples questions---and demands them to answer his.

    The jews asked jesus a question and jesus in return asked them a question---they would not answer Christ's question and Christ said unto them neither do I answer yours.

    that's my response to DHK--answer mine and ill answer yours.:love2:
     
  4. HisWitness

    HisWitness New Member

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    This is my whole point of the thread--we can both pronounce and understand the original name given to Christ by the Father---why did man take it upon his self to translate it to a different name???

    Was the name that God gave not enough ???

    if it was not understandable and un-pronounceable-then I could understand it
     
  5. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    It has to do with your integrity of which you have none.
     
  6. HisWitness

    HisWitness New Member

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    one form of the name jesus--does mean Hail or praise Zeus---I didn't say all forms mean that--but 1 does.
     
  7. HisWitness

    HisWitness New Member

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    Now why would you say that Amy ? :love2::love2::love2:
     
  8. DrJamesAch

    DrJamesAch New Member

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    You are asking the wrong question, and that's what's fogging your view.

    First of all, you have clearly demonstrated that you don't know anything about how words and phrases are translated or transliterated from one language to another. There are rules in translating and pronunciations as words move between languages. I have to follow them when I speak or write English, and of course there are times when I get stuck because English has a far broader variety of terms to choose from than Hebrew.

    Secondly, why I say you are asking the wrong question is because English was not developed until the Anglo-Saxon era. You are arguing from an anachronism fallacy. The apostles could not have possible translated any of the OT words for God, Lord, LORD, into English because English didn't exist when the NT was written, so it is a logical fallacy to make that kind of argument.

    The Bibles you have now were translated from Greek to English and the English did not follow the Hebrew for the NT because there were no prominent reliable Hebrew versions of a NT considering that the Jewish scribes who translated and recopied Hebrew texts would not write one for the NT because they didn't believe in the NT. Hebrew phased out as a universal language long before the NT times, and the universal language became Koine Greek. By the time English was developed, the only sources available for translating the NT were from Greek and Latin sources, and since not even Greek sources themselves kept the same form of the Hebrew words for God, it is erroneous to expect English translators to follow a rule that you are inventing that didn't even apply to the apostles when they translated OT Hebrew passages into Greek.

    For example, Stephens sermon in Acts ch 7. Find ANY Greek mss that translates all His OT quotes and retains the exact Hebrew form for the names of God.

    This is a silly argument and one based on a gross misunderstanding of how languages are translated from one to another.
     
  9. HisWitness

    HisWitness New Member

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    MY Gosh--lol---I never said the Apostles translated anything
     
  10. DrJamesAch

    DrJamesAch New Member

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    Once again, that's not how languages work. First of all, you do realize there are no vowels in Hebrew? Everytime you try and spell what you believe to be a Hebrew word for God, you are adding the ENGLISH transliteration of the niqqud to make the word readable and pronounceable in English. But you are not LITERALLY following that translation as it would actually and LITERALLY be translated or pronounced in MY language.

    As much as I disagree with many on here about doctrines such as Calvinism, KJV, pre mill, and I don't hold anything back, don't you think as an Israeli native I'd be correcting all of them on this issue if they were wrong about using the name Jesus or God in English?
     
  11. DrJamesAch

    DrJamesAch New Member

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    Yes, you did. YOu said point blank that the ORIGINAL texts never translated the word to "Jesus". Who wrote the ORIGINAL texts? THE APOSTLES.
     
  12. Steadfast Fred

    Steadfast Fred Active Member

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    DHK is a moderator. It is unwise to ignore a moderator. You might not like the consequences of such foolishness.
     
  13. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    What a childish game you play.
    I made a post directed to you. You never responded to it, except with a question. That is not debate. Why did you answer my post with a question, and now demand that I answer your question first. Answer my post. Prove that you are a Baptist.

    Do you believe that the Bible is the Word of God?
    Do you believe that God has preserved his Word?
    Do you believe in both the inspiration and preservation of the Bible, and if so, what do they mean to you and how are they applicable to us today?

    What does the word Zeus have to do with the word ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ
    Or:
    יְהוֹשׁוּעַ
    Or:
    יְהֹוָה
     
  14. DrJamesAch

    DrJamesAch New Member

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    The LITERAL Greek name for Zeus IN GREEK was Ζεύς, and Δίας in modern Greek. Not even close to Ιησους Χριστου
     
    #94 DrJamesAch, Jun 27, 2013
    Last edited by a moderator: Jun 27, 2013
  15. HisWitness

    HisWitness New Member

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    I said that the name jesus was NOT in the originals that the Apostles wrote--who were guided by the hand of God and made NO mistake.
     
    #95 HisWitness, Jun 27, 2013
    Last edited by a moderator: Jun 27, 2013
  16. HisWitness

    HisWitness New Member

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    since you refuse to answer my post--I will do the same unto you friend.
     
  17. Steadfast Fred

    Steadfast Fred Active Member

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    Since you refuse to answer a moderator, don't whine if he takes action against your hostility toward God's Word.

    You are not a Baptist. You may claim you are, but your posts betray you.
     
  18. HisWitness

    HisWitness New Member

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    im not in hostility friend--:love2::love2:

    he refuses to answer my question because he doesn't know how to answer it-
    Just like the jews didn't unto Christ--so they refused to answer it--to uphold their selves in self righteous
     
  19. HisWitness

    HisWitness New Member

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    All because I say the original name of Christ was Yahshua

    you say im not a Baptist for listing the name of Yahweh's Son ??
     
  20. Steadfast Fred

    Steadfast Fred Active Member

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    You are hostile to God's Word.

    You remove Christ's deity by attributing His name to a pagan one that worships a false god.
    You make Christ a created being by saying He is Michael.
    You teach that Adam was a serpent.

    All these doctrines are hostile to the truth. They are the enemy of God's Word, whether you want to admit it or not.
     
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