KJV-only supporter and website owner Timothy Morton has answered the question "Where was "the word of God"prior to 1611?" His answer (from his page at this link): "Before 1611 the "word of God" was a little here; a little more there; etc. It was spread all around in various languages and various manuscripts. One would have to live at the time to make a proper decision as to which to use and believe. Looking back any English translation before the AV would have been acceptable (except the Catholic Rheims version)." Whoa nelly! Isn't that *exactly* the position the rest of us non-KJV-only supporters hold today (except maybe for the Rheims part)? If that's how "preservation" took place in 1605, and that was the valid (only) meaning/fulfillment of God's promise of preservation, then why can't it still be true today? The position KJV-onlyism holds for 1605 is the exact same position we hold for 2003! Yet they *condemn* our position! Did the scriptures that talk of preservation change meaning in 1611???? Well, now that it's settled, we can finally close down the forum.