I have just borrowed this book. I am already engaged in some other reading material but I couldn't help myself from looking at the first few pages. I think many of the regular posters & readers here will recognize why I am immediately compelled to comment on his statement -- In the second arena, that of the Word of God written, Satan is more than ever active today. From the very outset, when he cast doubt upon God's Word in the garden with the question, "Yea, hath God said...?" he has sought to corrupt or destroy that which God has caused to be written. (Fuller's words from page 5, the section entitled "Why This Book?" [my underlines]) Fuller explicitly indicates in these two sentences that the "Word of God" he is discussing is "written" (twice), yet as his example he uses a historical narrative in which "God's Word" was NOT then in written form! Our Scripture does NOT indicate that God wrote His commandments down and gave them to Adam. Those intructions from God would not be recorded by Moses under inspiration until centuries later. So, at the time that Satan asks his question in the garden these words have only been 'spoken' by God -- And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden thou mayest freely eat: But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die. (Genesis 2:16-17, KJV) Fuller makes the all too common mistake (or deception?) of equating the term "Word of God" (or even "God's Word") with God's written revelation even when the Scripture passage is very clear that the words of God have only been given 'orally' and received 'audibly' at that time in history.