Romans 3:22, KJV Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: same verse, NKJV: even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all[a] who believe. For there is no difference; I recently had a discussion of this verse, and the othere which say 'faith OF Christ' in the KJV. I argued that JESUS has no faith; instead, He has SURE, EMPIRICAL, FIRSTHAND KNOWLEDGE. Faith is belief in something not seen, and there's NOTHING that Jesus hasn't seen, can't see, or doesn't know. Been a long time since I had a course in grammar, so I don't remember the tech term, but I believe the AV men used 'of' in the same sense in those verses as they did when they wrote "Wisdom is justified OF her children", where 'of' means 'by'; only in the case of Romans 3:22, etc. they used 'of' for 'in'. The KJV isn't wrong here, but neither are the MVs which say 'in'. We have simply gotten away from commonly using 'of' as a function word in the sense the AV men more frequently used it. However, we DO use it in this sense daily in one instance-"O'CLOCK." This is simply a contraction for "of the clock", which coulda just-as-easily been "ON the clock". However, that phrase has taken on an entirely-new meaning since then, so we stick with "o'clock". Well, whadda YOU think? Does Jesus have faith, or is faith a strictly-human thing God gave us?