Is the church guilty of trying to prove too much? Are we in error of overreach? Here are two examples of modern evangelical translations of a Greek word(s) in 1 Cor. 6:9 ESV - "men who practice homosexuality" Note: "The two Greek terms translated by this phrase refer to the passive and active partners in consensual homosexual acts" NIV2011 - "men who have sex with men" Note: "The words men who have sex with men translate two Greek words that refer to the passive and active participants in homosexual acts." The reasons given for these translation choices are usually based on the BDAG and the L&N. When you read those lexicons you find references to many ancient documents, but none are quoted to support the lexicon's conclusions. Does anyone know of a web site that gives the references printed out? The gay activists have researched and placed online the Greek word "arsenokoites" used in antiquity and have placed it online at: http://www.gaychristian101.com/Define-Arsenokoites.html Why on earth has the church scholarship not placed online somewhere the historical evidence of arsenokoites meaning what they think it means in the ESV & NIV2011? If the NIV2011 translates arsen-koites as "men who have sex with men", why did they not translate koites in Rom. 13:13 as men who have sex with women. Or, why are the terms "homosexual" and "homosexuality" found in some modern versions of Scripture, but not the words "heterosexual" or "heterosexuality"? Any reference to a web site that gives the church's record of the Greek arsenokoites in history would help.