We have a thread started by one gent who says why he's KJV Only. May as well have one from a person telling why he's NOT KJVO nor any other One-Version-Onlyist. My reasons are quite terse, and cut right to the chase: 1.) There's no scriptural support, not even the first quark of inplication, that supports any One-version-Only idea. 2.) It's plain, from the history of the Bible in English, that God has caused His word to be updated to appear in the language style in use during a given time period. Tyndale wasn't limited to the Anglo-Saxon mss, and there's no reason for US to be limited to an Elizabethan translation, or to any other one version. In other words, no valid reasons exist to be One-Version-Only, except for PERSONAL PREFERENCE. Everything else is guesswork.