Why was Jesus baptized?

The "us" was in referrence to a discussion between DHK, Bro. Bob and myself. It was a side discussion to the OP. You can go back a page and read it for yourself.

 

The righteousness to be fulfilled was Jesus Christ and He in making true the Promises of God and the Prophecies of his prophets -- in fact -- the Righteousness of which the Scriptures attested and still attest, also called the Mystery of Godliness and many wonderful other things. It is Christ, "The Righteousness, namely", says Paul, "OF GOD"! Ah! Spring up my soul, Righteousness and Mercy abounding to the chief of sinners!

 

GE; You twisted the entire scripture around, that is not what it says at all.

Mat 3:15And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer [it to be so] now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

If that does not include John, it has me fooled. Also, it is not talking about us, you and I. We could not of baptized the Lord. John the Baptist was a "man sent of God" to do just that, and John was the only one who could of baptized Him. By dragging everyone into it, you change the scripture until it is not true. Jesus was talking to John only, a man sent of God to baptize Him. Jesus knew that God had sent John to baptize Him, that is why He said it becometh "us" to fulfill all righteousness. God filled John with the Holy Ghost from His mother's womb, God sent Him to baptize Jesus, and God through John, did baptize Jesus. When Jesus said "I come not to do My will, but the will of My Father. Then when John come to baptize Jesus, he came to do the will of God also.

It sounds like when the preachers that God sends, baptizes someone, that it is not a righteousness act, or when he through the Holy Ghost preaches a sermon, it is not a righteousness act. Everyone can put man down all they want, but Jesus did not put him down as I have heard on here. Jesus said "unto them that have done good, the resurrection of life".

Why? is Jesus going to say "thou good and faithful servant"??????????

Without Me, you can do nothing, but with me, you can do all things well. (You can do all things well), If that is not true, our preaching is in vain, our baptizing is in vain, and I would say we probably are still in our sins if we cannot do a righteous act.

Rom 5:19For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

1Ti 1:9Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

Jam 5:16Confess [your] faults one to another, and pray one for another, that ye may be healed. The effectual fervent prayer of a righteous man availeth much.

Rom 8:1¶[There is] therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Rom 8:4That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Everyone carrys it too far about what a man can do or is. No wonder people say that Christians can commit every sin known unto mankind, if that is all they can do.

Is being faithful a righteous act????

Now tell me what part of that is not true.

BBob,

 

Truthfully I always thought he was setting us an example to follow.

Bbob,

 

I don't know where you get the age 12. He was already Christ, so I always thought He set an example for us to be baptized completely. I know there are other meanings to it. This is just one of my beliefs.



BBob,

 

I saw a similiar topic from another board and thought I would post it here:

I thought it might give you food for thought.

 

I think you had to be thirty years old to be in the ministry then. Maybe others can help.

1Ch 23:3Now the Levites were numbered from the age of thirty years and upward: and their number by their polls, man by man, was thirty and eight thousand.

BBob,

 

GE
I think there is a big misunderstanding here, brother? I deny nothing you say here, rather confirm or at least agree with? Why do you say I twist the Scripture? John had to baptise Jesus so that all righteousness should be fulfilled as the Word of God appointed from of old. Nothing that happened to or with or through Jesus happened against all righteousness, did it not? So why you say I twist the Scripture, because I say when John had done baptising Jesus he had all righteousness fulfilled and obeyed? Is that what you say? Well then it's what I say!

 

Just a misunderstanding. I am glad we agree.

BBob,