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Featured Word Study G3724, “horizo”

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Van, Aug 9, 2014.

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  1. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Not anyone's guess. But someone's personal incredulity.
    None of those other choices tell the reader than God had specified beforehand in scripture what is being discussed.
     
  2. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Commence explaining your rationale.
     
  3. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    None of those other choices tell the reader than God had specified beforehand in scripture what is being discussed.
     
  4. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Nonsense Van. The words appoint, decree, determine, and ordain have all been used in Scripture to show God's foreordination coming to fruition in time. To say otherwise is absurd.
     
  5. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    None of those other choices i.e. appoint, decree, determine and ordain, tell the reader that God had specified beforehand in scripture what is being discussed.
     
  6. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    You're being supremely silly Van. Of course they do.
     
  7. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Yet another effort at redefinition. Appoint does not mean specified. Ditto for determine, and ordain. If God's decree was specified in scripture, then the meanings are similar.
     
  8. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    The words appoint, determine, ordain, and decree are all much stronger and more 'specific' than the limp-wristed specified that Van vainly insists upon.

    In Luke 22:22, "decreed" is far more suitable than merely 'specified.
    In Acts 2:23 it was God's deliberate plan and foreknowledge. Van's heterodox version is just that."Specified" and "prior knowledge" are thankfully in no translation.
    In Acts 10:42, 'appointed' works just fine.
    In Acts 17:31, ditto the above.
     
  9. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Yet another effort at redefinition. Appoint does not mean specified. Ditto for determine, and ordain. If God's decree was specified in scripture, then the meanings are similar.

    God specified how Christ would die in Isaiah 53, and said so in Acts 2. Why not translate the full message of God found in the Greek?

    The heterodox view is word study is without merit, or modern translations do not contain flaws, or words have no inherent meanings.
     
    #89 Van, Sep 18, 2014
    Last edited by a moderator: Sep 18, 2014
  10. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Correct. Appoint, determine, ordain and decree are all much stronger and more to the point than your limp-wristed specified.
    It doesn't discuss how He would die but about His death and sacrifice and what that entails for His people.
    Acts 2:23 to be exact, as well as Acts 4:28.
    And, as usual, you claim that you are able to convey "the full message of God." You are deluded Van.
     
  11. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Yet a repeat of presenting less than the full message of God, leaving out of Acts 2 that God has specified how Christ would die in Isaiah 53.
     
  12. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    You stubbornly maintain that all translations are wrong not to use your particular (and peculiar) word choice in Acts 2:23. You then link the latter with Is. 53 somehow insisting that translations are missing something there also --without "specifying" what that may be. Van, you are full of yourself. In your estimation those poor translators "missed the mark" as you often drone on about. But now you have arrived on the scene to set them all straight. It's Van time.
     
  13. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Yet another falsehood but no quote will be forthcoming. Did I say all translations that do not make the same choice I made are "wrong." Nope. But Rippon said I did. Thus his posts are riddled with misrepresentations calculated to demean and disparage. Hate speech again on display.
     
  14. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Ten Examples

    Examples from your own keysrokes in this thread will follow:

    Post 1 : "has brought confusion to many...this completely misses the idea."

    Post 17 : "all of which is missed by the tradtional translations."

    Post 54 : "God specified His plan in Isaiah 53, but that fact is left out of the translation."

    Post 58 : "Modern translations translate it with a slew of different words."

    Posts 60 and 76 repeat the above.

    Post 75 : "To leave out of the Acts 2 translation that God had specified His plan in Scripture does not present the full message of God."

    Post 81 : "None of these other choices tell the reader thn [sic] God had specified beforehand in Scripture what is being discussed."

    Posts 83 and 85 repeat the above.

    Post 89 : "Why not translate the full message of God found in the Greek?"
     
  15. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    And not one of the examples said "translators were wrong." You have got to love them folks. :)

    But I did say specified was better than other translation choices because specified presents the full message of God, i.e. that God had specified the manner Christ would die in scripture such as Isaiah 52.
     
  16. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    All of the above quotations mean "the translators were wrong." Words have meaning and merit. To undo commonly accepted words is dishonest.
     
  17. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Now Rippon whats to redefine the meaning of my words to put his words in my mouth. So Calvinistic it is funny. But not one of the examples actually said "translators were wrong." You have got to love them folks.
     
  18. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Let me make it easy for you

    = translators were wrong.
    = translators were wrong
    = translators were wrong
    = translators were wrong
    = translators were wrong
    = translators were wrong
    = translators were wrong
     
  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Rippon continues to derail the thread, posting nothing about the topic, and simply repeating his disinformation.

    Picking the best translation choice among several does not say the others were wrong, just not the best available.

    Specified is a better translation choice because it includes the idea that God had told us in scripture how Jesus would die.
     
  20. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    But according to Van, that can't mean the translators were wrong, just not the best available translation.
    Of course that can't mean that the translators were wrong. It just means that the translations were not the best available ones.
    Certainly that doesn't mean the translators got it wrong. It just means that their translation wasn't the best available.
    Of course, though they translated with a slew of different words does not mean they got it wrong. No, not at all, they just didn't have access to the best available ____[whatever].

    Now I know what you're thinking :"Surely that means the translators were wrong!" No, it doesn't. They just didn't have the best available...?
    Here again, what seems to be an insistence that the translators were wrong is simply not the case. It's just that the translators didn't have the best [tools?] available.
    You get the idea. What you see with your eyes is not real. He didn't mean here that the translators were wrong. No, that's not the case. They just didn't have the best [information?] avaliable to make better choices.
     
    #100 Rippon, Sep 22, 2014
    Last edited by a moderator: Sep 22, 2014
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