All agree that the New Testament teaches imminency. The question is, how do we define imminency. Basically, there are two perspectives: 1. The perspective of Dr. Thomas Ice, who says that imminency means that Jesus "could" come at any time, and anytime is relative to no specific generation of people. 2. The Preterist view, which says that the New Testament writers wrote the imminency statements to a specific original audience, and, therefore, those statements, like "the time is short" (I Cor.7:29) and "the coming of the Lord draws near" (James 5:8) meant EXACTLY THAT to the original audience, or that first century generation of early saints. This view is in perfect harmony with what Jesus declared, namely, that he would come again before "this generation" had passed. Original audience relevance is the most basic and critical of interpretive rules. For instance, Paul would not have said to the Corinthians that the time was "short" if the time was actually long. The word "short" was relative to their generational timeframe. Those who hold to a futuristic view of the Lord's coming have necessarily make the time statements fuzzy so that they have no real meaning. They have to flat out ALLEGORIZE them, thereby making them a COMPLETE MYSTERY. After all, it takes one whale of an allegory to make words like "shortly", "near", "soon", "at hand", and "this generation" to cover 2000 years and running! And then they accuse preterists of allegorizing! Wow! So how do ya all think about imminency? WOULD - meaning imminent relative to the original audience. Or COULD - meaning anytime in the next 10,000 years. Note: Once the critical original audience factor is thrown out it's anything goes after that. Think about it.