Those That Never Heard The Gospel

I've seen this answer given to that question by multiple people and it always comes up flat to me. "Well, God knew they would reject so He didn't bother to send it to them." Hello, God knew the Jews would reject the gospel yet He definantly sent it to them, and He had His own Son preach it to them. It's an oversimplification to state that "they would have rejected it anyway." Millions of people who have heard have rejected. Many have not heard. The answer is much more complex than that. It really lies in the mind and purprose of God.

 

See http://www.evangelicalinclusivism.com for a good analysis.

 

When it comes to salvation, we tend to make a lot of absolute assumptions. One of those assumptions is that everyone who is isolated from hearing the gospel is categorically lost. The truth is, we have no idea how God has revealed his son to those people, so it's not within our authority to ascertain their salvific state. The bottom line is, we have a calling to preach the gospel. So let's do it, and let's leave the geographically isolated folks to the Holy Spirit.

 

God is complete control, and we should never doubt His ability to save a person.

 

Yes, we are called to preach the gospel, because it pleases God to save through the "foolishness of preaching." In Romans 10, Paul asks rhetorically how one can believe unless he hears and how can he hear without a preacher.

So I think we must be careful here. To suggest that God has a different way of salvation for those who've never heard is to question the scriptures. If there is another way, then I suggest we bring all the missionaries home and leave them for God to save independently of the gospel.

It is not within our authority to determine if an individual is saved. But it is well within our authority to declare the terms of entry into the kingdom (the keys to the kingdom). We certainly have no authority to give a pass to anyone just because they have not heard the gospel.

 

I'm not in any way implying that God has a different way of salvation for those who've never heard. I'm simply saying that we should not be so presumptive to think that we're the only way God has to share the Gospel. God can use whatever He wishes to share the Gospel with someone.

 

Good answer.

Try Romans 2:13-16 Where God tells us that the Gentiles who have no Bible access at all - (so no access to the written word of TRUTH) that are moved by the Holy Spirit and show the Law written on the heart (done only by the Holy Spirit according to Romans 2 and 2Cor 3) are counted as if they are fully informed Jewish saints of Heb 11!!

Notice that in John 16 Christ says the Holy Spirit "convicts the WORLD of sin and righteousness and jugment" -- not just "the Christians".

In John 12:32 Christ said that He is drawing ALL MANKIND unto him - not just Christians.

In 1John 2:2 Christ is the "atoning sacrifice for OUR sins and NOT for OUR sins only but for the sins of the whole WORLD".

in 1John 4 - God sent His son to be the savior of the WORLD

in 2Peter 3 - "God is not willing for ANY to Perish but for ALL to come to repentance".

In John 3:16 "God so loved the WORLD" not just the "FEW" of Matt 7 that find the narrow road.

This brings us to the "grieving God" texts already listed on this board where God is shown to weep and grieve over the lost.
http://www.baptistboard.com/showpost.php?p=1446736&postcount=219

in Christ,

Bob

 

I generally can agree. God is certainly bigger than any box we can try to fit Him into.

Yet, the only scriptural guidance we have with regard to the Gospel is that it is spread through human instrumentality. I have racked my brain (which is pretty painful) to think of another way that the lost can get the Gospel without some human involvement, and have come up empty.

So, if God uses whatever instead of whoever, maybe you can suggest how that might be done.

Also, maybe some of our Primitive Baptist brothers and sisters can shed some light on this question. Their view is similar to yours, I believe.

 

How can it be proven there are those who have never heard (proving a negative)? It's assumed as such...but can it be proven? No. Why debate on the "what if's"?

 

I have always thought, as God revealed himself to Abraham. So through his creation, he reveals himself to all men. Those who have not had a chance to hear the Gospel, will be judged according to their response to the revealed knowledge they do have.

Rom.1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:

 

Web, this is the other aspect of this debate. There are plenty, even on this board, that will argue that everybody has heard the gospel. The argument runs like this: Since God is not willing that any should perish, and desires all to come to repentance, God must, someway, somehow, in order to be fair, make the gospel available to all so they may accept or reject it.

To carry this argument a step further, if there are those who never hear the gospel, how can they be condemned for something they don't know about. How can they be held responsible for rejecting Jesus Christ of whom they have never heard? Therefore all have heard the gospel.

Let me hasten to say, I don't buy this argument.

Here's one reason: Romans 10:14-15 And how shall they call on him in whom they have not believed; and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? And how shall they hear without a preacher? 15 And how shall they preach, except they be sent?

Early on in Jesus ministry, when he sent out his disciples on mission, he specifically ordered them not to go to the Gentiles or the Samaritans--but only to the "lost sheep of the house of Israel."

Paul, in his testimony before Agrippa, told of God's commission to him to "open the eyes" of the Gentiles and "turn them from darkness."

Now, the natural question is, how then are those who have never heard to be judged. They cannot be condemned for rejecting the gospel, nor for rejecting the claims of Jesus Christ. I have an idea to share in a later post.

 

I have maintained that not all have heard the gospel, and that God has ordained that those who hear the gospel of Jesus Christ will hear it by human instrumentality (preaching, missionaries, Bibles, pamphlets).

Yet, because of the creation, all are without excuse, even though they've never heard of Jesus Christ. They are responsible to God for their sin, even in their ignorance about the Messiah. How can that be? On what basis will they be judged?

Paul explained how. Romans 2:14 points out that Gentiles who have never heard about the Law are "a law unto themselves." That is, they have some sort of moral code, some sense of right and wrong. Even though they devised their own code of morality, they can't even keep it.

Those lost will not be judged on a "decision" about Jesus. They will be judged on how well they kept their own moral code. Which is badly, of course. Even though they have a sense of right and wrong, they will acknowledge that they did not even live up to what they knew.

 

2 PETER,3 GOD is not willing that ANY should perish but for ALL to come to repentence.
John 10: 27 & 28 My sheep hear my voice and I know them, and they follow me: 28, And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my Fathers hand.
Something to think about: What say ye.

 

People are not condemned because they reject the gospel;we are born condemned. No one deserves to be saved. Even if God just saved one person, He would be showing mercy.

There seems to be an assumption among many Christians that God is supposed to give the gospel to everyone, or that everyone should have a chance to hear it.

 

Marcia's right!

 

Wow, we agree, Rippon!

Actually, I thought what I expressed was just a basic staple of biblical Christian teaching.

 

Sometimes that happens.

It should be. If I say anything else a bunch of stones would be thrown at me from others. So I'll just say I agree with your biblical view.

 

What does John 3:18 say?

 

Two passages of scripture are relevant to what has already been said:

Romans 1:19,20.."Because that which may be known of Gods is manifest in them (point one), then; For the invisible things of Him from the creation of the world are clearly seen....so that they are without excuse..."

And, Romans 3:10 "As it is written, there is none righteous, no, not one........."

It is not a wonder that God saves many, but that God saves any.

Cheers,

Jim