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Were several States in violation of the US Constitution

Discussion in 'Political Debate & Discussion' started by Salty, Oct 21, 2010.

  1. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    In another thread about Christine O'donnell, Crabby kept informing us that the US Constitution states "separation of Church and State". If that were so, then why did several states have official religions?

    It wasn't until the late 1800's did the last State end having an official religion. Its interesting what some of the State Constitutions had to say.
     
  2. FR7 Baptist

    FR7 Baptist Active Member

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    Salty, the First Amendment only applies to the States by selective incorporation through the Due Process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
     
  3. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    OK, now in laymens terms...
     
  4. FR7 Baptist

    FR7 Baptist Active Member

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    Selective incorporation is the process by which the Supreme Court applies select provisions of the Bill of Rights and relevant case law to the States in order to fulfill the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
     
  5. carpro

    carpro Well-Known Member
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    Baloney.

    The 14th Amendment did not exist for nearly a hundred years and the first amendment worked just fine without it.
     
  6. rbell

    rbell Active Member

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    Sa-WING and a miss...
     
  7. FR7 Baptist

    FR7 Baptist Active Member

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    Yes, but applying only to the Feds.

    Tell me what you don't understand and I'll try to explain.
     
  8. rbell

    rbell Active Member

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    Sorry, I was being a smart-aleck. The wording was kinda tough. I got it; it just sounded a bit "lawyerly."
     
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