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Why Was Jesus Tempted?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Tom Butler, Aug 27, 2011.

  1. Tom Butler

    Tom Butler New Member

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    In another thread, Willis defended himself against an accusation that Jesus had a sin nature.

    Rather than derail that thread, I'd like to raise a couple of questions.

    One, if Jesus, being both God and human, could not sin, what was the point of the Temptation by Satan?

    Did Jesus successfully resist Satan's tempting because he could not sin, or simply because, as God, he would not sin?

    Don't read anything into these questions about what I think? Jesus was sinless. He acted consistently with his nature. No part of him was tainted with sin or the inclination to sin.

    But I've wondered about the purpose of the Temptation. Maybe Satan mistakenly though he could appeal to the flesh just as he did with Adam and Eve.

    Just wonderin'.
     
  2. Tom Butler

    Tom Butler New Member

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    I remember reading a treatise years ago by Dr. M. R. DeHaan, who was also a physician. It was called The Chemistry of the Blood. A Google search will turn it up quickly. He offered his explanation why Jesus could be human, but not have a sinful nature.

    Here's one paragraph:
    Just thought I'd throw this in to stir the pot a bit.
     
  3. kyredneck

    kyredneck Well-Known Member
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    IMO, one reason would simply be so that the truth of Heb 4:15 could be established. The first Adam failed, the second Adam did not.

    Another reason, as always, Christ set the example for us.

    I hold that He was impeccable and could not have sinned.

    Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil. Mt 4:1

    IMHO, Satan was 'led up' to it also. I doubt he was looking forward to this meeting with the Son of God, but this was something that HAD to be fulfilled, i.e., “it must needs be”.

    I can't help but wonder how similar this 'led up of the Spirit' is to what occurred with many other prophets in being 'carried away in the Spirit'.
     
    #3 kyredneck, Aug 27, 2011
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  4. mandym

    mandym New Member

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    If he could not have sinned then there was no temptation. And scripture is a liar.
     
  5. mckestev

    mckestev New Member

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    One of the reasons for the temptation was already alluded to. Christ is representative of mankind and was tempted like Adam was, but did not suffer the same failure. Also, Jesus is representative of Israel. Israel was tested in the wilderness and failed repeatedly. The temptation reveals Jesus as the one and only who is worthy.
     
  6. kyredneck

    kyredneck Well-Known Member
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    And straightway the Spirit driveth him forth into the wilderness. Mk 1:12

    The Greek for 'driveth' in this passage is very forceful, i.e., 'to be ejected or expeled'.
     
    #6 kyredneck, Aug 27, 2011
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  7. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    Do theses verses contrast the striving of Christ to that of others? I will post the verses in reverse.

    Ye have not yet resisted unto blood, striving against sin.
    For consider him that endured such contradiction of sinners against himself, lest ye be wearied and faint in your minds.
    Looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of the faith; who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising the shame, and is set down at the right hand of the throne of God.
     
  8. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    The problem with this thought by Dr. DeHann is that, if followed to its logical conclusion, it requires Mary to be sinless. How can it be argued "not a drop of blood of this sinful race entered his veins?"

    This is just of of many problems with the thoughts in the quote. In essence, these thoughts lead down the path to many errors in theology.

    Blessings,

    The Archangel
     
    #8 The Archangel, Aug 27, 2011
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  9. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    The purpose of the temptation was so that the Last Adam could "undo" what the first Adam did. This is why you have three temptations as opposed to one.

    If you look at some of parallels, this becomes quite clear: Adam was in a garden; Jesus was in a desert. Adam was surrounded by food; Jesus had been hungry for 40 days

    The first Adam had every advantage and should have passed the temptation. The Last Adam had no advantages and He passed three tests.

    The overall purpose--Jesus undoing what Adam had done--is important, given that Adam was the Federal Head of the human race and Jesus is the Federal Head of His sheep.

    As Adam acted as a representative for all humanity, Jesus acted a representative for His elect. Therefore, His elect have his righteousness as a heritage whereas Adam's progeny have his disobedience and rebellion as a heritage. The heritage of Adam leads to death for all and the righteousness of Christ is passed on to those "in Christ" and leads to life.

    Blessings,

    The Archangel
     
  10. kyredneck

    kyredneck Well-Known Member
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    The Impeccability of Christ by Arthur W. Pink

    Excerpts:

    "The last Adam differed from the first Adam in His impeccability. Christ was not only able to overcome temptation, but He was unable to be overcome by it. Necessarily so, for He was ‘the Almighty’ (Rev. 1:8)."

    "‘Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and today, and forever’ (Heb. 13:8). Because He was not susceptible to any change, it was impossible for the incarnate Son of God to sin. Herein we behold again His uniqueness. Sinless angels fell, sinless Adam fell: they were but creatures, and creaturehood and mutability are, really, correlative terms. But was not the manhood of Christ created? Yes, but it was never placed on probation, it never had a separate existence. From the very first moment of its conception in the virgin’s womb, the humanity of Christ was taken into union with His Deity; and therefore could not sin."

    "The constitution of Christ’s person proves His impeccability. In Him were united (in a manner altogether incomprehensible to created intelligence) the Divine and the human natures. Now ‘God cannot be tempted with evil’ (James 1:13); ‘it is impossible for God to lie’ (Heb. 6:18). And Christ was ‘God manifest in flesh’ (1 Tim. 3:16); ‘Immanuel’—God with us (Matt. 1:23). Personality centered not in His humanity. Christ was a Divine person, who had been ‘made in the likeness of men’ (Phil. 2:7). Utterly impossible was it, then, for the God-man to sin."
     
  11. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    How can God sin?

    James 1:13: Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am being tempted by God,” for God cannot be tempted with evil, and he himself tempts no one.

    God, and therefore Christ, cannot be tempted with evil.

    There was never a time when Jesus was not both God and man. Jesus was fully God at the time of His temptation, and as God, He could not be tempted.

    Was there a temptation? Yes. Was it "real?" Absolutely. Was the outcome of the temptation in doubt? Never. Why? Because the temptations could not have an effect on Him.

    Jesus was and is "impeccable."

    Blessings,

    The Archangel
     
  12. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    :applause::applause::applause::applause:
     
  13. kyredneck

    kyredneck Well-Known Member
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    I believe those Hebrew believers were being both exhorted to stand fast and reassured at whom/what they have placed thier faith in.
     
  14. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    Hear you Israel Yahweh Elohim of us Yahweh one.

    Did the one referenced above beget in the virgin Mary by his own Spirit Being
    a child that became her firstborn son in the flesh the day she brought forth or did something from those, because of Elohim above enter the virgin Mary and come out as 100% God and 100% man nine months later?

    Was the one they called Jesus begotten of God or something else?

    Please use as much scripture as possible.
     
  15. kyredneck

    kyredneck Well-Known Member
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    AMEN!!

    It's good to be reading your posts again AA.
     
  16. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    Do you think the passages from Heb 12 are related to the following?

    And he was withdrawn from them about a stone's cast, and kneeled down, and prayed, Saying, Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me: nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done. And there appeared an angel unto him from heaven, strengthening him. And being in an agony he prayed more earnestly: and his sweat was as it were great drops of blood falling down to the ground.

    Here is what Jesus said to them just before the above took place.

    And when he was at the place, he said unto them, Pray that ye enter not into temptation.

    Here is how he found them.

    And when he rose up from prayer, and was come to his disciples, he found them sleeping for sorrow,

    And he said again.

    And said unto them, Why sleep ye? rise and pray, lest ye enter into temptation.
     
  17. psalms109:31

    psalms109:31 Active Member

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    The Spirit of God cannot sin, So the Spirit of God that was in Adam was separated from him because of sin his soul. I do not believe God can be tempted, so the only answer I see is the soul of Jesus is the one that was tempted. I know Jesus is God champion, His chosen Stone, but to say He didn't have the ability to sin because of the flesh that war against our soul I don't see it.

     
    #17 psalms109:31, Aug 27, 2011
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  18. mandym

    mandym New Member

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    Your personal interpretation does not line up with other scripture

    Heb 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin.

    Just because you struggle to understand how or why does not mean it is not so. Jesus in an unglorified body was tempted as we are. He remained sinless but was tempted never the less.
     
  19. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    If Jesus, being both God and human, could not sin, what was the point of the Temptation by Satan?

    Therefore he had to become like his brothers and sisters in every respect, so that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make a sacrifice of atonement for the sins of the people.

    Because he himself was tested by what he suffered, he is able to help those who are being tested.
    Hebrews 2:17–18 (NRSV)

    Rob
     
    #19 Deacon, Aug 27, 2011
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  20. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    You know, it's funny...rather than seek to understand the concept of impeccability, you lash out saying that I have the struggle to understand. Rather than ask questions, you accuse. Instead of seeking to understand my position, you attack that which you obviously do not understand--and you do so by quoting scripture that seems to advance your position while ignoring the scripture that I previously posted. This is all rather small on your part.

    Let me further explain what is going on in the concept of Jesus' impeccability.

    We have the verse I posted:

    We have the verse you posted:

    By discounting the James passage, you are not doing justice to the entire biblical record and you are not seeking to employ a whole-Bible theology.

    These verses are not at odds. The Bible does not contradict itself. Therefore, these verses must be complimentary, not contradictory.

    Since these verses must compliment each other, it must be the case that Jesus was actually tempted and the temptations were real (Heb 4:15). But it must also be the case that Jesus, being God, was absolutely impervious to these temptations (James 1:13). His impeccability does not, in any way, diminish the temptations.

    Furthermore, it would seem that you forget what Jesus says in Matthew 15:

    [18] But what comes out of the mouth proceeds from the heart, and this defiles a person. [19] For out of the heart come evil thoughts, murder, adultery, sexual immorality, theft, false witness, slander.
    [20] These are what defile a person. But to eat with unwashed hands does not defile anyone.”


    What this shows us is that temptation is not, ultimately, from without, but from within. So, when we are tempted by Satan, he is only tempting us to act upon what is inherently within us as fallen, sinful human beings.

    So, the sinful actions of any person are not because "the devil made me do it." Instead, the sinful actions of any person proceed from a sinful heart. Satan may, at times, coax out that which is internal, but he does not create the sin which comes out of us.

    There is absolutely no chance Jesus could have sinned because He had no sinful heart. The devil couldn't make Him do anything sinful because there was no sin inside Him.

    Satan tempted Jesus with the same thing that Adam was tempted with--rebellion (which is, actually, the root of all our sin). Jesus, being God, could not rebel against Himself. He had to--impeccably--follow God's will.

    The temptation, though real, could have no effect.

    Blessings,

    The Archangel
     
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