Featured Capitalization in John 1:1

Van you must have missed:

"1537 ek (a preposition, written eks before a vowel) – properly, "out from and to" (the outcome); out from within. 1537 /ek ("out of") is one of the most under-translated (and therefore mis-translated) Greek propositions – often being confined to the meaning "by." 1537 (ek) has a two-layered meaning ("out from and to") which makes it out-come oriented (out of the depths of the source and extending to its impact on the object).

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What a waste.

Now he denies an obvious truth, sometimes "ek" is used to show dependence.

Just read the link, folks.

 

Van,

I am not denying that the word can show dependence, but it must also be understood that the dependence has focus and direction.

A believer “depends” upon God because God is in them (“ 14For the love of Christ controls us...). The “depends” is not a manner of a safety net or rescue, but God imposing upon the believer such as should be accomplished. The believer “depends” upon God’s faithfulness and His goodness to shine out from them with authority and righteous character.

A believer not only depends, but is responsive to the authority and control of the Christ in them. As such the believer serves as that conduit of service. The believers “work out their salvation” not by purposefully of their own strength, but because Christ flows out of us compelling us by His authority to that which He purposes.

The dependence is not presented as one depending on another to fulfill a contract, but as one who has the wherewithal in which to accomplish the task because the giver of the task is also the one accomplishing the task. The believer is the tool, not the force behind the tool.

 

Thanks for at least recognizing an appropriate translation possibility for "ek." Needless to say, your redefinition of the meaning of dependence has no support. A person who depends on the Law has not been regenerated!
An unsaved person can depend on God or on themselves or on an enticing snare of Satan.

 

When you posted:

Seems you did open the conversation up to consideration of other then John 1.

 

1) You have not addressed the response, thus you need to stop the diversion, and just address the topic.
2) My response addressed you rewrite question, either capitalize references to Yahweh, or not, but do not mix and match.
3) When the translators believe Logos refers to Yahweh, they should follow their practice of capitalizing or not references to Yahweh.

Here is an interesting NET interpretative choice, found in its preface:

Nouns have been used for pronouns where the English pronoun would be obscure or ambiguous to a modern reader. This has been indicated in a note.​

And another snippet from the NET Preface:

Archaisms have also been avoided (e.g., “letter” was used instead of “epistle” in the NT). This includes the absolute avoidance of “thou” and “thee,” since there were no distinctions in the original Hebrew or Greek between pronouns used to address people and those used to address Deity. On a related note, pronouns which refer to Deity are not capitalized for this same reason.​

 

My choice in bold because I believe, the word, to be the spoken thoughts, the heart and intent of God. It was what was spoken through the prophets of old and now spoken through, Son. God sent his thoughts, heart and intent (word) in the flesh, born of woman. And the Son spoke the word of the Father.

God with us.

 

Note that the NET sometimes replaces a pronoun with the name of its antecedent to avoid ambiguity, but chooses not to capitalize pronouns to clarify that the antecedent is Yahweh.

 

Here are perhaps overly interpretative translations choices where the Greek preposition "ek" has been translated to indicate dependence. Obviously the modern translation teams have chosen to ignore this possible choice, but it does shed a different light on the possible intended message. Food for thought but not necessarily accurate.

John 8:47 He who depends on God hears the words of God; for this reason you do not hear them, because you do not depend on God.”

John 18:37 Therefore Pilate said to Him, “So You are a king?” Jesus answered, “You say correctly that I am a king. For this I have been born, and for this I have come into the world, to testify to the truth. Everyone who depends on the truth hears My voice.”

Romans 3:26 for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the justifier of the one who depends on the faithfulness of Jesus.

Romans 4:14 For if those who depend on the Law are heirs, faith is made void and the promise is nullified;

Romans 4:16 Therefore the promise depends on faith, that it might be in accordance with grace so that it is certain to all the descendants, not only to those dependent on the Law, but also to those dependent on faith like Abraham, who is the father of us all.

1 John 3:19 And by this we know that we are dependent on truth, and thus will assure our hearts before Him.

 

Sorry for the double post but I missed the "edit" window of opportunity.

Here are perhaps overly interpretative translations choices where the Greek preposition "ek" has been translated to indicate dependence. Obviously the modern translation teams have chosen to ignore this possible choice, but it does shed a different light on the possible intended message. Food for thought but not necessarily accurate.

John 8:47 He who depends on God hears the words of God; for this reason you do not hear them, because you do not depend on God.”

John 18:37 Therefore Pilate said to Him, “So You are a king?” Jesus answered, “You say correctly that I am a king. For this I have been born, and for this I have come into the world, to testify to the truth. Everyone who depends on the truth hears My voice.”

Romans 3:26 for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the justifier of the one who depends on the faithfulness of Jesus.

Romans 4:14 For if those who depend on the Law are heirs, faith is made void and the promise is nullified;

Romans 4:16 Therefore the promise depends on faith, that it might be in accordance with grace so that it is certain to all the descendants, not only to those dependent on the Law, but also to those dependent on faith like Abraham, who is the father of us all.

2 Corinthians 2:17 For we are not like the majority, peddling the word of God, but as those who depend with sincerity on God, we speak in the sight of God in Christ.

1 John 3:19 And by this we know that we are dependent on truth, and thus will assure our hearts before Him.

 

I think it is a good idea, for clarification and perhaps even a level of honor & respect to capitalize words that function as a pronoun for the Father, Son and/or the Holy Spirit. Especially with the word "God". To use "god" instead of "God"---- based upon what we are used to from our currently English translations--- can convey "a god" instead of "the God".

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*and the fact that I would get dinged by several professors if I did not captilze a pronoun refer to God probably influences my opinion as well

 

The Greek word Logos is translated by the KJV uncapitalized more than 200 times and is capitalized less than 10 times. So the question arises, were any of the uncapitalized usages a reference to the Second Person of the Trinity and should therefore have been capitalized like the KJV did in John 1:1?

If we look at one example, 1 John 1:1, we see that the KJV capitalized "Word" in the phrase "Word of life" but other translations (LEB, NET, etc) did not. Which brings us right back to the problem identified in post #2. Is the phrase referring to the Second Person of the Trinity, of the life giving gospel?