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Featured God no One Has Seen, The Unique God...- John 1:18

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by SavedByGrace, Sep 24, 2020.

  1. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    "GOD NO HAS SEEN AT ANY TIME. THE UNIQUE GOD WHO IS VERY CLOSE TO THE FATHER, HE HAS REVEALED HIM"

    This reading, as we shall see from the evidence, is the original as written by the Apostle John. The difference being, that "God" (theos) was at a very early date, replaced by "Son" (huios). Some might object to this, and say that it could be the other way around, that "God" was the later reading of the original "Son". Again, the evidence shows from the earliest Greek manuscripts, and quotations in the writings of the early Christian teachers, as well as the heretics who were opposed to the Deity of Jesus Christ, that "God" was indeed the original reading.

    This single verse in the Bible shows beyond any doubt, that the Lord Jesus Christ is as much as Almighty God, as the Father is. In both uses of "God" in the Greek (theon and theos), it is used without the definite article, "the" (ton theon and ho theos). The use and meaning of “God” in both places are exactly the same. It is only because of ones personal “theology”, that any distinction will be made. Here we have Two Persons, the Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ, the Son, Who are both called “God” equally. This itself destroys any teaching that says that the Godhead consists of only One Person, God the Father. It also shows beyond any doubt, that Jesus Christ, like the Father, must be “eternal” and “uncreated”. If Jesus Christ is a “created being”, as some blasphemously teach, then so must the Father be, as BOTH are EQUALLY called THEOS here, where the meaning is EXACTLY THE SAME.

    The meaning and use of the word can be seen from the following Greek lexical authorities. Where it is used to show “uniqueness”, as Dr Thayer has it, “single of its kind”. The Oxford English Dictionary defines the English “unique”, as, “Unmatched, unequalled,
    having no like or equal or parallel”, which is exactly right in the case we have of the Lord Jesus Christ.

    It is evident that the meaning of “only-begotton”, with the idea of “begetting or generation”, is purely a theological one, and does not reflect the actual meaning of the word itself, as Moulton and Milligan have shown. It was due to the theological controversies of the early Church leaders, to combat the heretics (like Arius [256-336 A.D.], the fore-runner of the Jehovah’s Witnesses) of their time, who were teaching that Jesus Christ was the “first created”, by God the Father, that this word, in its Latin usage, was employed to counter any notion of “creation”. In doing so, the Orthodox party themselves adopted ideas and language that itself was heretical, when the embraced the teaching of the heretic, Origen, of the “eternal generation” of Jesus Christ, as to His Person, from God the Father. A teaching that is blasphemy. Hence the error of the Nicene Creed, which has the phrase, “God of God”, for Jesus Christ, which at face value seems to show His Deity. But in fact, it teaches a subordination of Jesus Christ, within the Godhead, to the Father. This is seen from the use of the Greek preposition, “ek” (of), which speaks of “derivation”. This is Biblically impossible, as it make the Trinity of “unequal Persons”, which is destroyed by the single text of John 10:30, “I and the Father, we are one”, which teaches the plurality of Persons, and unity of power and nature, as seen from the context (My hand...My Father’s hand).

    The Lexical Meaning of "Monogenes"

    (Monogenes" (from, monos=only, single; and, genos=kind. Lit., of a single kind; unique)

    "Lit. it means 'of a single kind', and could even be used in this sense of the Phoenix (1 Clem.25.2). It is only distantly related to gennao, beget. The idea of 'only begotten' goes back to Jerome who used unigenitus in the Vulg. to counter the Arian claim that Jesus was not begotten but made" (Colin Brown, Ed., The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Vol.II, p. 725)

    "Single of its kind, only; used of only sons or daughters...used of Christ, denotes the only son of God or one who in the sense in which he himself is the son of God has no brethren" (J H Thayer; Greek-English Lexicon, p.417)

    "only...Also unique (in kind) of someth. that it the only example of its category...'unique and alone'" (W F Ardnt and F W Gingrich; A Greek-English Lexicon, p.529)

    "the only member of am kin or kind: hence, generally, only, single, unique" (H G Liddell and R Scott; A Greek-English Lexicon, p.1144. Revised Edition)

    "Monogenes, is literally “one of a kind,” “only,” “unique” (unicus), not “only-begotten,” which would be monogennetos, (unigenitus), and is common in the LXX in this sense" (J H Moulton & G Milligan; Vocabulary of the Greek New Testament. pp. 416-417)

    " The Usage outside the NT. In compounds with genēs, adverbs describe the nature rather than the source of derivation. Hence monogenēs is used for the only child. More generally it means “unique” or “incomparable.” The LXX has the first sense in Judg. 11:34 and the second in Ps. 22:20. agapētós occurs in Gen. 22:2, 12 where monogenḗs might have been used (cf. Mk. 1:11), but while the only child may be “beloved,” the terms are not synonymous." (G Kittel and G Friedrich, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, p. 607. single vol ed)

    It is clear why John uses the term "monogenes theos" for Jesus Christ in verse 18. Not that Jesus is the "one and only God", which cannot be the case, as we already know that the Father is God. We know from verse 1 of this chapter, that "the Word was with God [the Father and Holy Spirit], and the Word was God". Jesus Christ is here equally "God" as the Father and Holy Spirit are. There is no reason why the use of "God" in John 1:1, in its first use, must be limited to the Father only, and not also include the Holy Spirit, Who is also called "God" in Acts 5:3-4.

    We then read in verse 14, that "the Word became flesh and dwelt among us", which is the Incarnation of the Lord Jesus Christ. Dr Marvin Vincent puts it well, “In becoming, He did not cease to be the Eternal Word. His divine nature was not laid aside. In becoming flesh He did not part with the rational soul of man. Retaining all the essential properties of the Word, He entered into a new mode of being, not a new being.” (Word Studies on John). This the Apostle Matthew says, is, " they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us" (1:23). Which is from the Hebrew, "Immanuel", which is "God with us". Matthew is quoting from the Prophet Isaiah, “Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a Son, and shall call His Name Immanuel” (7:14). “Immanuel” means literally “God with us” (Gesenius, Hebrew Lexicon), and not, “God is with us”. There is no “is” in either the Hebrew or Greek Old Testament text, or Matthew’s Gospel. And, where the Apostle Paul says in 1 Timothy, "God was manifested in the flesh" (3:16), which is the original reading, and not the corrupted "who", in place of "God".

    It is only Jesus Christ, Who is the Second Person in the Holy Trinity, while remaining Almighty God, coequal to the Father and Holy Spirit, took upon Himself the “nature of a human being”. This great Truth is clearly put forth in Paul’s Epistle to the Philippians, where he writes in the second chapter, “Who (Jesus) always existing in the very nature of God...took upon Himself the very nature of a Servant” (5-8). This He did, not by an exchange of the one “nature” for the other, so as to cease to be God. But, by “adding” the “human nature” to His eternal Divine nature, thereby becoming the “God-Man”, being fully God and fully Man at the same time, in the One Person, the Lord Jesus Christ. This is a great mystery, which no human mind can ever fathom, and “unique” (monogenes), or “of a single kind”, in every way. There never has, nor will there ever be, another Person like the Lord Jesus Christ, Who walked this earth some 2000 years ago, as FULLY GOD and FULLY MAN. This is exactly why the Apostle John wrote “monogenes theos”.

    EVIDENCE FOR THE READING "THEOS":

    Manuscripts: (Greek)

    The Codex P66 (about 200 A.D.)
    The Codex P75 (early 3rd cent.)
    The Codex Sinaticus (4th)
    The Codex Vaticanus (4th)
    The Codex Ephraemi (5th)
    The Codex Regius (8th)
    The minuscule manuscript 33 (9th)

    Ancient Versions:

    Diatessaron (2nd) - Armenian Edition
    Apostolic Constitutions - (4th)

    The Syriac Peshitta - (5th)
    The Syriac Harklean - margin (7th)
    The Ethiopic (6th) - Roman Edition

    Patristic: (Early Christian Writers)

    Irenaeus, Bishop of Lyons (A.D.130-200) - Greek
    Clement of Alexandria (150-215) – Greek
    Eusebius, Bishop of Caesarea (260-340) – Greek
    Alexandria, Bishop of Alexander (died, 328) - Greek
    Didymus the Blind, of Alexandria (313-398) - Greek
    Hilary, Bishop of Poitiers (315-367) - Latin
    Epiphanius of Salamis (315-403) - Greek
    Basil, "the great" of Cappadocia (330-379) - Greek
    Gregory of Nyssa (330-395) - Greek
    Ambrosiaster, Rome and Spain (f.375) - Latin
    Jerome (342-420) - Latin
    Synesius, Bishop of Ptolemais (370-414) - Greek
    Cyril of Alexander (died, 444) - Greek

    Heretics:

    Valentinus of Egypt (2nd cent)
    Theodotus (2nd)
    Ptolemy (2nd)
    Heracleon (2nd)
    Origen of Alexandria (185-254)
    Arius of Alexandria (250-336)
     
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  2. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    So until the 20th century the vast majorty, if not all geniue Christians along with the vast majority Greek copies of John (the now 99.6%) had it wrong. Your evidence at best are only 0,4% Greek texts of John.
     
  3. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    do you know how textual criticism really works? You response says NO!
     
  4. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    New Living Translation
    No one has ever seen God. But the unique One, who is himself God, is near to the Father’s heart. He has revealed God to us.

    English Standard Version
    No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known

    Berean Literal Bible
    No one has ever yet seen God. The only begotten God, the One being in the bosom of the Father, He has made Him known.

    New American Standard Bible
    No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him

    International Standard Version
    No one has ever seen God. The unique God, who is close to the Father's side, has revealed him.

    NET Bible
    No one has ever seen God. The only one, himself God, who is in closest fellowship with the Father, has made God known

    New American Standard 1977
    No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten God, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him
     
  5. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Pretty much also proves that modern versions were not a;; "perverted and satanic", as KJVO holds!
    Think that the term they choose to use of only begotten indeed was to react and stress that Jesus was not a created being, but how we see that tern now could cause some to read back into it what they never intended, as Jesus being somehow a less than the Father God!
     
  6. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    I would say better than you. There are more than one view of Biblical textual criticism.
     
  7. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    good for you!
     
  8. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Here is how the NET renders our verse:
    John 1:18
    No one has ever seen God. The only one, himself God, who is in closest fellowship with the Father, has made God known.

    So as to issue of God or Son, Dr. Wallace comes down on the side of God.

    As for translating "monogenes" we have "only one" here, but a NET footnote indicates "one of a kind" is the meaning of the word.
    Others, such as the OP rendering, favor "unique" which is also an accurate translation.

    Some others think when "monogenes" describes the Second Person of the Trinity, a good rendering would be "uniquely divine." The idea is God incarnate. God in the flesh is a one of a kind God, and the uniquely divine Son is God in the flesh.
     
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  9. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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  10. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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  11. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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  12. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    The reasons regarding the CT need to be noted.
     
  13. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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  14. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Any more modern?
     
  15. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    why? do you suppose these did not know what they wrote? I doubt very much if you will find any to match these, certainly not Bruce Metzger, who was a liberal, or his student, Daniel Wallace!
     
  16. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    From what I understand they would favored "Son" in John 1:18.
     
  17. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    I doubt that DTS allowed liberals to be staff members!
     
  18. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    maybe so, but they were brilliant in their field of work. can't always agree, but respect nonetheless.
     
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  19. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Metzger on the Authority of the New Testament:

    " ...the disquieting possibility remains that the evidence available to us today may, in certain cases, be totally unrepresentative of the distribution of readings in the early church” (Metzger, Text and Interpretation: Studies in the New Testament Presented to Matthew Black, 1979, p. 188)
     
  20. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    and yet as being the head of the textual criticism dept, would have to affirm inspiration and infallibility of the scriptures!
     
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