Featured Did Christ die two deaths?

John 19:28, ". . . Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, . . ." Christ's payment for our sins were already completed before His physical death for His bodily resurrection.

 

Romans 6:10 says He died once

 

From a just created thread by @37818. We should merge these threads into one. @Salty can we do this?

 

What did Jesus finish before His physical death in John 19:28?

How?

 

Come on people. Even Jon Macarthur says He died spiritually. He suffered separation from The Father which is by definition Spiritual death.

 

Romans 6:10, ". . . For in that He died, He died to sin once; . . ." Before John 19:28.

". . . but in that He lives, He lives to God. . . ." After He resurrected from His physical death.

 

My original post was a statement. And @AustinC saved my original argument in post #4. Thanks.

Christ died two deaths.

John 19:28, ". . . Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, . . ." Jesus having paid for our sins. And in John 19:30, Jesus states this just before He physically died to be raised physically from the dead to demonstrate He had paid for our sins per 1 Corinthians 15:17.

 

He finished the Old Covenant with the descendants of Jacob. At Jesus death the New Covenant came into effect (Hebrews 9).

The old Sinai Covenant with the nation of Israel was complete. The Promised Redeemer had fulfilled that Covenant.

 

When He declared that He finished the New Covenant,and the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom ended the Old Covenant.

 

Well, if JMac said it it's gotta be true. Not.

 

It depends on your terms of "spiritual death." If in regards to ceasing to be the second member of the Trinity, but remained God still - then no MacArthur does not hold to that. If it is that He ceased to be God altogether - then it is still no. If you mean that He suffered alienation from the Father, yet still being in the bosom of the Father, and the second member of the Trinity, then yes, he believes that, but he states it as He died "a kind" of spiritual death - yet I would disagree with his term still.

 

I like John Gill's commentary on John 19:28 - "or just upon being accomplished, were as good as finished; and as they were to be, would be in a very short time; even all things relating to his sufferings, and the circumstances of them, which were afore appointed by God, and foretold in prophecy". That is a simple and concise explanation, since Jesus could not have died twice.

 

I don't disagree with the term "spiritual death" at all. Spirits do not cease to exist. Of course Jesus never ceased being the second person of The Trinity. He did suffer separation from The Father due to our sin. He suffered spiritual death. No way around that

 

You missed the point by ten miles. I said "even Macarthur" because he is the one so famous for opposing Kenneth Copeland teaching of Christ being tortured and resurrected in Hell. Even Macarthur, the most vocal opponent of the WOF teaching of Jesus tortured in Hell, readily admits and teaches Jesus suffered spiritual death.

 

I am totally aware of that back story. They are both wrong.

 

How is Mac wrong? The accepted definition of spiritual death is separation from God. Do you use a different definition of spiritual death or do you contend Jesus did not experience separation from His Father?

 

In my understanding it was not a separation. God is omnipresent. It was a forsaking, per Psalms 22:1. It was a death of His soul, per Isaiah 53:12, Isaiah 53:6.