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John 14:14 and Revelation 14:1

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Olivencia, Apr 10, 2009.

  1. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    The only useless conversation that I have seen is that which states, "if you cannot understand the KJV you must not be spiritual."

    Poppycock and balderdash!

    The drive-through mentality comes from those who refuse to allow their thinking to be challenged - that is, those on "both sides of the aisle", both KJVO and likewise.
     
  2. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    I want to get to the point on this issue shortly.

    Do you think Jesus taught the people to pray to Him in His name?

    If anyone prays in the name of Jesus, the prayer becomes like a prayer by Jesus.

    Then it is like that Jesus prays to Jesus. Does it make sense?

    Nobody has commented on this.

    Again, the modern versions which states " ME" in John 14:14 are wrong !
     
  3. Tater77

    Tater77 New Member

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    It simply what the older mss have. Mostly P66 and B carry the most weight for that reading.
     
    #63 Tater77, Apr 18, 2009
    Last edited by a moderator: Apr 18, 2009
  4. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    That's not consistent at all, Eliyahu. In another post you advocate the addition of a word in order to support an opinion that isn't supported by the verse in question.

    The verse really reads:

    The KJVs and all other translations I've checked agree with the NKJV reading, not the Eliyahu reading.

    Would you please decide what you think about added words, Eliyahu? It damages your credibilty severely when you support two opposing viewpoints. If translations should not add words, then why should we accept your assertion that Ezekiel 45:21 should read differently? Nothing should be added to Scripture, Eliyahu. Yet in one post you agrree with this biblical teaching while in another post you seek to add to the verse in question. Be consistent, okay?
     
  5. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    Even if I don't add the word " then" it is quite OK as long as the readers understand the sentence correctly.
    Even if the versions didn't have the conjunctive, the meaning of the sentence is not that 14th of Abib is 7 days. Your calendar may be one day has sometimes 168 hours, while the rest of the days have only 24 hours.

    I already told you the examples of the Hebrew OT, where Hebrew OT omitted the conjunctive "va" and the English translations also omitted the conjunctive " and" many times.

    Read, Numbers 7:87 and 88. There is no conjunctive "va" and " comma" either! The translators added the comma there ! Are they wrong?

    You wouldn't say 24 bullocks=60 rams=60 he-goats, right?

    Whether one add the Conjunctive in the translation or not is not a question, but the real meaning in that sentence is that 14th Abib is the Passover, and 7 days of the Unleavened Bread follows thereafter.
    If you don't understand this, you are insisting that one day on 14th Abib equals 7 days in that month. 7 days Eze 45:21 means 15th Abib thru 21 Abib, which is different from 14th Abib, the Passover day.

    The main problem has occurred simply because you have not read the Hebrew OT at all!
     
    #65 Eliyahu, Apr 22, 2009
    Last edited: Apr 22, 2009
  6. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Matthew 9:38 Pray ye therefore the Lord of the harvest, that he will send forth labourers into his harvest.​

    Matthew 13:30 Let both grow together until the harvest: and in the time of harvest I will say to the reapers, Gather ye together first the tares, and bind them in bundles to burn them: but gather the wheat into my barn.​

    HankD​
     
  7. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Here is another point.

    If we are Trinitarians then we by the definition thereof believe that each member of the Godhead has all the attributes of deity.

    Is the resurrected Christ omniscient, omnipresent and omnipotent?

    If this is so, why would anyone have a problem praying to anyone of the eternal members of the Godhead?


    HankD
     
  8. Mexdeaf

    Mexdeaf New Member

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    I don't- this brings to mind something that the late, great Dr. John R. Rice said one time. He prayed before a meeting and prayed to the Holy Spirit. After the meeting a dear saint came up to him and said, "Dr. Rice, I thought we were always supposed to pray in Jesus' name only?"

    Dr. Rice peered at her over his glasses and said, "My dear lady, when you know one of the members of the Trinity, you know them all."
     
  9. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    Do you think " Praying to Jesus in the name of Jesus" is correct?
     
  10. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    Jesus answered the Peter's request when he didn't ask in the name of Jesus.

    Mt 14:
    30 But when he saw the wind boisterous, he was afraid; and beginning to sink, he cried, saying, Lord, save me.

    31And immediately Jesus stretched forth his hand, and caught him, and said unto him, O thou of little faith, wherefore didst thou doubt?

    " in the name of Jesus" is needed when we pray to the Father !
     
  11. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Hi Eliyahu,

    Since you seemed to answer your own question, I'm not sure what it is you are asking.

    Anyway I'll give you what I believe is the correct answer.

    "in the name of Jesus" simply means in His authority.

    What authority is that?

    The authority of Who He is and What He has done.


    Hebrews 10
    1 For the law having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices which they offered year by year continually make the comers thereunto perfect.
    2 For then would they not have ceased to be offered? because that the worshippers once purged should have had no more conscience of sins.
    3 But in those sacrifices there is a remembrance again made of sins every year.
    4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.
    5 Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:
    6 In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin thou hast had no pleasure.
    7 Then said I, Lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to do thy will, O God.
    8 Above when he said, Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by the law;
    9 Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.
    10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
    11 And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins:
    12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
    14 For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.
    15 Whereof the Holy Ghost also is a witness to us: for after that he had said before,
    16 This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;
    17 And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more.
    18 Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin.
    19 Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus,
    20 By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh;
    21 And having an high priest over the house of God;
    22 Let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water.

    Under the authority of Moses a citizen of the Nation of Israel could approach God in a limited way but only the high priest could enter beyond the veil. The penalty was death and even the mortal high priest of the Nation of Israel was subject to death if he entered in an unworthy manner.

    Now because of Who Jesus is and what He has done as outlined in Hebrews chapter 10, you and I (and every child of God) can enter into the holy of holies without fear and have intimate fellowship with God.

    Therefore if one understands this principal, then yes it would be technically proper (IMO) to pray to Jesus in His name, understanding that "His name" means in His authority, who He is and what He has done.

    He is our High Priest, He has cleansed us and opened the way to God in a new and everlasting way. He is the mediator of the New Covenant.

    Hebrews 12
    22 But ye are come unto mount Sion, and unto the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem, and to an innumerable company of angels,
    23 To the general assembly and church of the firstborn, which are written in heaven, and to God the Judge of all, and to the spirits of just men made perfect,
    24 And to Jesus the mediator of the new covenant, and to the blood of sprinkling, that speaketh better things than that of Abel.

    Isaiah 9:6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.

    Matthew 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

    John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

    John 14:6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.


    HankD​
     
  12. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    Hank,
    As this thread is about Jn 14:14,
    I was asking if " Praying Jesus for anything in the name of Jesus" is correct or not.
    Because, if you ask God for anything in the name of Jesus, then God accept your prayer as if Jesus asked anything, and listens to the prayer.

    However, modern versions state Jn 14:14 as follows:

    14 You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it. (NIV)

    14"If you ask Me anything in My name, I will do it. ( NASB)

    If you ask Me [f] anything in My name, I will do it.( HCSB)

    If you ask me[e] anything in my name, I will do it. (ESV)

    all quotes are from BibleGateway.com

    So, Modern versions are saying that the verse of John 14:14 teaches us to ASK Jesus in Jesus name, while KJV say

    14If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.

    This indicates that we shall ask God in the name of Jesus. When we ask Jesus for anything, I believe we don't need to mention His name. But when we ask God, we cannot approach Him without the Mediator, the Redeemer and therefore we need the Name of Jesus Christ. We can access God only thru Jesus Christ, but we don't need any mediator to approach Jesus. RCC may claim that we need another mediator to approach Jesus, which means that we should pray to Mary !

    The supporting manuscripts are split in this case.
    As I mentioned, Asking yourself in your name doesn't make sense. You can do whatever you want. When you ask CEO for something, you may need to ask thru your boss or in the name of your boss, but when you ask your boss for something, you don't need to ask your boss in the name of the boss !

    "In the name of " means the full authorization and Jesus gave us such tremendous authorization to use His name when we ask God for anything, which cannot be asked in our name.

    When we ask Jesus anything, we don't need to do it in the name of Jesus ! We can simply ask anything to Him, as we read " Lord Save Me !" ( Mt 14:30) and He Saved Peter !



    All quotes are from BibleGateway.com
     
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