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Psalm 37:23

Discussion in 'General Baptist Discussions' started by Cyndi from Cullman, Mar 9, 2017.

  1. Cyndi from Cullman

    Cyndi from Cullman New Member
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    The steps of a good man are ordered by the Lord: and (he) delighteth in (his) way.

    Does anyone know who the "he" is and who the "his" is?

    Is the first "he" the Lord or does that refer to the "his" ?

    And which is the pronoun for the "good man"?

    Please refer to the Bible as your guideline for your answer. (I have my own personal guesses but I would really like a biblical reason)

    Thank you so much!!!!
     
  2. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    He, the man, delights in his, the man's, way (the walk with God as He sets in order the pathway).
     
  3. Happy

    Happy Well-Known Member
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    [23] The steps of a good man are ordered by the LORD: and he delighteth in his way.

    The steps of a good man <--- pertains to any good man
    are ordered by the LORD <--- how a good man walks is according to the order (way) of the LORD.
    the LORD: (he who?) the LORD (does what?) delights in the LORDS way. (order).

    LORD mentioned, then (a colon), giving greater detail specific about the LORD.
    he (delighteth) and his (way/order) is in reference to the LORD.
     
  4. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Psalm 37:23-24, NKJV. 'The steps of a good man are ordered by the LORD, and He delights in his way. Though he fall, he shall not be utterly cast down; for the LORD upholds him with His hand.

    The Hebrew experts on the Board may correct me, but I think that, grammatically, 'he and 'his' could be either the man or the Lord. Therefore one has to look at the context, and that is particularly found in verse 24. Because the Lord upholds the man when he falls, that surely is an indication that God delights in his [the man's] way, because He upholds him in it. Also, the nearest antecedent to 'he' is the LORD.

    At all events, the NKJV translators agree with me, as they have capitalized the 'He' to show that it refers to God, and left the 'his' uncapitalized to show that it refers to the man. :)

    C.H. Spurgeon wrote: 'As parents are pleased with the tottering footsteps of their babes, All that concerns a saint is interesting to his heavenly Father. God loves to view the holy strivings of a soul pressing forward to the skies. In the trials and joys of the faithful, Jesus has fellowship with them, and delights to be their sympathetic companion.
     
    #4 Martin Marprelate, Mar 10, 2017
    Last edited: Mar 10, 2017
  5. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    An acrostic psalm.
    The pronouns are as ambiguous in Hebrew as they are in the translations.

    My contribution, when man walks in the steps of God, both are happy.

    Rob
     
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  6. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Both. It's mutual.

    Why not?

    HankD
     
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  7. Happy

    Happy Well-Known Member
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    Hi Rob ~

    Yes, both are happy ~

    However I would say ~
    "his way" is always Gods "way", who always IS Christ Jesus. (ie; I am the way).
    God does "delight" in "his way", who always IS Christ Jesus. (ie; in whom I am well pleased).

    A man whose "steps" follow after Gods "way" ( Christ Jesus ), of course always "pleases & benefits" God.

    Benefits God? Yes. Since all men WHO become saved and born again and "sealed" unto God, become Gods "inheritance". :)
     
  8. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    When we set out to study a verse, one goal should be to understand what is being said.

    Does the Lord direct, establish or order the steps of every person, good or fallen? Yes. So the addition of the word "good" alters the meaning of the verse. Does the Lord delight in the errant steps of the fallen? Nope. So that is not the idea either. We make plans but God directs our steps. Thus we operate within the purview God allows. We may plan to flap our arms and fly away, but it ain't happening.

    Here is the ESV -The steps of a man are established by the LORD, when he delights in his way;
    This misconstrues the meaning of the verse. Nobody follows the Lord perfectly, even when doing our best. So that is not the actual idea.

    But within the purview allowed by the Lord, the Lord presents us with His path of righteousness, and the Lord delights when we follow His righteous path.

    In summary, The steps of a man are established by the LORD, and He [LORD] delights in His [LORD's} way. When a man falls who is striving to stay on the righteous path, he will not be hurled headlong, because the Lord is the One who holds his hand.
     
  9. Happy

    Happy Well-Known Member
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    Yes. The ultimate ie ending goal.

    The steps before hand, is to read, hear, TRUST it IS TRUE, without yet understanding.
    Understanding in general (carnally) always comes later, AFTER the knowledge is read, heard, attention of one focusing on the knowledge. THEN comes the understanding of a carnal mind through observation, pondering, logical conclusion.

    It is similar with Scripture. Hear, Read, Verify, TRUST it is TRUE, keep following, believing, focusing on a particular verse (topic)......and THEN "ask God" for "His" understanding.

    Only God gives "His" understanding to an individual. And Gods "understanding" is NOT measured or compared to "Carnal" understanding that a mans MIND concludes as LOGICAL.

    Logic requires figuring on the EXTENT of ones knowledge.
    TRUTH requires no "figuring". TRUTH IS; period.

    1Chr.22
    [12] Only the LORD give thee wisdom and understanding,

    :)
     
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