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Featured Hell: Which View is The Bible One?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by AndyMartin, May 10, 2017.

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  1. FollowTheWay

    FollowTheWay Well-Known Member
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    The clear Biblical view is that Hell is a real place in which the damned suffer eternal separation from God with no hope of regaining that relationship. The Bible states that:
    Heb 9:27
    And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:
    There is no purgatory or "in between temporary" state. The Bible doesn't specify specifically what Heaven will be like other than it will be more fantastic than anything we can imagine. Similarly, Hell is many times characterized as fire and brimstones but I believe it will be much worse than we can imagine as well.
     
  2. AndyMartin

    AndyMartin Active Member

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    You cannot use human logic and reasoning to understand the depths of Almighty God!
     
  3. AndyMartin

    AndyMartin Active Member

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    "losing conscious existence forever."? Jesus clearly describes the final state for the unsaved as a place of "conscious existence", where He uses terms like, "gnashing of teeth", "torments", "suffering", "where THEIR worm (spiritual bodies) never die and the fire not extinguished". You cannot make all of this into mere "symbolic" language.Those who hold to this view are at odds with the Incarnate Christ.
     
  4. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    And the smoke of their torment goes up forever and ever; they have no rest day and night, those who worship the beast and his image, and whoever receives the mark of his name.”

    Here, Revelation 14:11 is one of the strongest verses used to support the contention "eternal punishment" includes "eternal torment." Those pushing eternal torment interpret the verse to say "the smoke of their [ongoing] torment goes up forever and ever." Certainly a reasonable view and those holding another view of the verse should not claim the eternal torment view is not possibly how it should be understood. But in light of the aforementioned verses suggesting eternal torment may not be the correct view, how else could this verse be viewed?

    Just as the smoke arises from fire, smoke of their torment arises from their torment. But if the idea is to show the eternal consequence of being consigned to the Lake of Fire, then the smoke or consequence of being tormented goes up forever, referring to their eternal separation from God. Likewise, the "no rest day and night" could refer to the period of torment, rather than supporting eternal torment.

    Bottom line, Revelation 14:11 provides strong support of eternal torment, but not compelling evidence in light of other scripture, IMO.
     
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  5. Mark Corbett

    Mark Corbett Active Member

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    I'm a theologically conservative evangelical pastor of a small Baptist church. For many years I believed the Bible taught the doctrine of eternal conscious torment. However, after much careful study of the Bible, I now believe it teaches annihilationism, which is also often referred to as Conditional Immortality. I preached a two part sermon on this topic which you may find here: parresiazomai: Burned Up: Annihilationism versus Eternal Conscious Punishment
     
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  6. Mark Corbett

    Mark Corbett Active Member

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    Van, thanks for sharing this. I agree that Revelation 14, together with Revelation 20, are the passages which appear to give strongest support to the doctrine of eternal conscious torment. In fact, they are the ONLY passages where both the idea of "eternal" and "torment" are tied together. Because I believe every word in the Bible is true, I spent a great deal of time studying these passages. I have written an extensive, 7 part blog post explaining why I am now convinced that these passages can be and should be interpreted in ways which are harmonious with annihilationism. You may find my blog series here: parresiazomai: What is the Second Death? Part 1, Symbols and Meanings
    Grace and Peace, Mark (with Hope and Joy!)
     
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  7. Mark Corbett

    Mark Corbett Active Member

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    Andy, I really appreciate the thoughtful way you are discussing this topic.

    You rightly note that in Matthew 25:46, the same Greek word, "αἰώνιος" (eternal), is used twice.

    NIV Matthew 25:46 "Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life."

    I completely agree that it is reasonable to expect it to have the same meaning both times. I also agree that the meaning is “without end” in an absolute sense.

    What is often not considered is that annihilation IS an eternal punishment. The annihilated will remain dead for all eternity and will never enjoy the presence of God or the blessings of living in the New Heavens and New Earth.

    The phrase “eternal punishment” does not have to refer to an unending process. It can refer to a process of finite duration which has unending results. In this way it is similar to the phrase “eternal judgment” in Hebrews 6:2. This is not a process of judging which goes on forever. It is a judgment which takes a finite time, but which has results which remain forever. Likewise, “eternal punishment” is a punishment which takes a finite time to carry out, but which has eternal results.

    Also, it should be noted in Matthew 25:46 that “eternal punishment’ is contrasted with “eternal life”. In this verse, as in EVERY verse which discusses eternal life, it is ONLY the righteous who live forever. Therefore, a punishment which consists of eternal death is a much better fit than eternal torment. Grace and Peace, Mark (with Hope and Joy!)
     
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  8. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    Uh no not in this case.
     
  9. Happy

    Happy Well-Known Member
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    You play old and worn out tactics.

    I had a long post, speaking in the general, with several specific points.
    I SAID, if there was anything SPECIFIC you wanted to challenge because you disagreed...
    ...then challenge the point you disagreed with.

    IF you were incapable of seeking and finding in scripture the point your were challenging, to just ASK and I would provide for you, what YOU COULD NOT FIND in scripture.

    You elected to simply disagree with EVERYTHING I said.

    So I selected ONE POINT, and SHOWED YOU that Scripture verified what I said.

    You elected to simply CONTINUE disagreeing with EVERYTHING I said.

    You have succeeded in straying away from what I said to simply repeating your disagreement of the whole of my post, with you never having been specific about ANY point.

    I accept your inability to challenge anything specific and your choice to disagree with scripture and with me.

    Go talk in circles with someone else; it bores me.

     
  10. AndyMartin

    AndyMartin Active Member

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    hello Mark, I am convinced that those who hold to the view, that the wicked will be "annihilated", are very much mistaken and deceived in their "theology". I am yet to see any reference, to any Greek word that denotes "annihilation", when these words were available at the time the writers of the Books of the New Testament wrote. One such word, "ἀυᾰνιςμϋρ", could well have been used at least once in relation to the wicked at the end of their "existence", where its meaning would have well suited its purpose, "extermination, destruction, disappear", which was used from the time of Polybius, in the 2nd century B.C. There are also others words which could have been used, but are not. Surely this in itself is enough to make us stop and think of what we believe the Bible actually teaches on this all important Doctrine, and not be persuaded by the current trend in "world thinking", and even following the likes of John Stott, who sadly succumbed to this unbiblical notion that the wicked will eventually be "wiped out".

    Even though as I have already said, that the Greek word used in Matthew 25:46 for "punishment", which is "κόλασις", can be used for "chastisement, correction". That it is also used for "torment, punishment, torture", as is used in the Martyrdom of Polycarp (2.3-4), which shows the use of this word in New Testament times.

    You say, "The phrase “eternal punishment” does not have to refer to an unending process". But, this lands you with a problem which I do not believe you can argue around. If, as you suggest when "αἰώνιος" is used for the wicked, it "does not have to refer to an unending process", then, the same MUST be the case when the SAME word is used for the saved, who are promised to be with the Lord FOREVER, where the entire teaching of the Bible on this subject, means, WITHOUT END. Unless you, or anyone else is prepared to contradict the words of Jesus Christ, Who spoke these words in Matthew, there is NO other alternative, than to accept what it very plainly does, that the wicked will indeed "suffer conscious punishment which shall never end". This Doctrine is the saddest in the entire Bible, and I wish to God that it were not there! BUT, it is, and we must accept that Almighty God knows full well what He is doing, and ALL that He does is 100% Just and Right! It requires much humility on our part, as we are only the clay!
     
  11. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Eternal separation from God is eternal punishment, especially when you consider "punishment" might be referring to confinement.
    Destroy can mean ruined but it can also mean obliterated. Thus at least one Greek word could support being destroyed after suffering just punishment (torment) for the individuals sins. Clearly God could destroy both the body and the soul in Gehenna.

    Since Satan and his two cohorts will suffering eternal torment in the lake of fire, it is reasonable to assume the people put there will also suffer the same fate. But it is an assumption. God Bless
     
    #111 Van, May 14, 2017
    Last edited: May 14, 2017
  12. Happy

    Happy Well-Known Member
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    Exod.22
    1. [20] He that sacrificeth unto any god, save unto the LORD only, he shall be utterly destroyed.
    Matt.10
    1. [28] And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell.
    You are very much mistaken because you chose to use the world "annihilate", when scriptural teaching chose to use the "meaning of annihilate".

    You choosing to use the world "annihilate" which does not appear in scripture, does not change the understanding of what annihilate means, or what scripture teaches, which is precisely utter destruction of the wicked, which IS annihilation!

    annihilate; IS to destroy utterly!
     
  13. Happy

    Happy Well-Known Member
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    Reasonable for people to assume with their minds conclusion, yes.

    Factual according to Gods Word? No.

    Created VESSELS are that which God imparts life (from Him, who IS Life).
    Created VESSELS regularly have LIFE imparted and departed (BY God).
    Created "spirits" are vessels with "forever" LIFE imparted (from God) to them.

    All "holy spirits" created by God have LIFE "forever" in them, "even" when "THEY" depart BEING holy, and choose to stand AGAINST God. It is THEY who shall "forever" burn in the pit. Forever, because spirits can not die.

    Mankind believer or not....all are or have vessels with life from God in them. Life absolutely can be departed from their vessels, and are regularly, and we call them DEAD.

    Mankind WHO remains WICKED - which means, knowing the truth of what is right, but chooses to follow after what is wrong - never submits unto the Lord ~ and SHALL NEVER receive a "new spirit", a new spirit which is "FOREVER" living.

    Thus what they do receive IS, Life departed from their body, (which is their blood), and Life departed from their soul, (which is Gods breath) and their body and soul DESTROYED in the same pit of fire, to which a Fallen Angel is sentenced to continue in their Life forever, experiencing the flames of the eternal fire.

    Such a MAN, never received a forever living spirit, thus they are UTTERLY DESTROYED.

    They do not suffer the TORMENT eternally of BEING in the pit of fire.
    Their suffering is temporarily their living soul being hell, separated from God, while recognizing the truth, that God exists and IS God.
    Their eternal TORMENT IS eternal Separation from God. It is not a PHYSICAL torment. It is a Spiritual Fact that they shall know and believe BEFORE their permanent Separation commences.[/QUOTE]
     
  14. AndyMartin

    AndyMartin Active Member

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    I think that people have really missed what the Bible says on the fate of the lost wicked. You say that "Eternal separation from God is eternal punishment", but, to the wicked who don't really care about God or anything that concerns Him in this life, why should they care a hoot if they will be "eternally separated from God"? This is exactly they are hoping for! You are looking at the English meaning of "destroy", which could mean "obliterated". This means nothing, as the Bible was originally written in Hebrew and Greek, and there is not a single word that I am aware of in either language, that is used in the Bible to describe the ultimate fate of the wicked, that means "annihilation". If I have missed this, then please quote chapter and verse. There is no point in arguing from "understanding" or the English language, as this does not help.
     
  15. AndyMartin

    AndyMartin Active Member

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    See my response to Van. Your arguments mean nothing as they are NOT based on the facts of the usage of Hebrew and Greek. Forget English, as there are many instances where the wrong words have been chosen by the English translators for both the Hebrew and Greek.
     
  16. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Thanks Mark for sharing your bible study. We do not get too many here who are willing to explain what they believe the bible teaches, especially if it is not party line Calvinism or Arminianism. I especially liked your point that you had not gone too far afield, and so even though your view is a minority view, it is mainstream and totally consistent with all scripture, contextually considered.
     
  17. AndyMartin

    AndyMartin Active Member

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    If you mean that "annihilationism" is "totally consistent with all scripture", then you must have a special version of the Bible. I am willing to listen to anyone who takes the time to show from Scripture ALONE, by a close examination of the original languages, and then post their research here quoting chapter and verse, and giving documented evidence from Hebrew and Greek lexicons, that show where in the Bible we find "annihilationism". I can say that this is NOT provable from the Word of God, because it does NOT exist as a Bible Doctrine. We have to lay aside our preconceived ideas of what we "think" the Bible should say, and let it speak to us.
     
  18. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    First, Andy, my post referred to the Greek word, not the English definition The Greek word, transliterated "apolymi" (G622) often refers to the ending of our physical life on earth.. For example, Luke 17:27 and 29. Now when your physical life is destroyed, you are not conscious. Thus when the word is applied to the soul (Matthew 10:28) it is reasonable to conclude the same idea, the end of conscious life, is in view.
     
  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    See my post #118.

    And note that Mark made clear he is not advocating "annihilation" at death, but "annihilation" after being tormented in the Lake of Fire such that the lost are punished perfectly for their sins. This would be consistent with some punishment being more tolerable than for others.
     
  20. AndyMartin

    AndyMartin Active Member

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    Hi, it is not "reasonable" at all, if what you suggest is not based on the use of the Greek word, "ἀπόλλυμι". I have consulted the Greek lexicons that I have available to me, Liddell and Scott, Arndt and Gingrich, Thayer, Robinson, Parkhurst, Kittel, Colin Brown, Sophocles, Moulton and Milligan, and Lampe. And I have not found a single use in these works, that say the Greek word "ἀπόλλυμι", is ever used to denote "annihilation", or even "loss of conscious". the fact that Jesus Himself says that there will be "wailing and gnashing of teeth, and torment" in hell, can only mean that those there must "feel" this, as in the Rich man and Lazarus. If you have an example where "ἀπόλλυμι" is used as you think it is, then please post the references here. Some of the works I have referred to are available at archive.org which can be consulted online.
     
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