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How Jesus Became Solomon's Successor

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Zuno Yazh, Mar 16, 2018.

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  1. Zuno Yazh

    Zuno Yazh Member

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    Q: Seeing as how Jesus was virgin conceived; how did he get into Joseph's genealogy as per the first chapter of Matthew?

    A: Via a patriarchal precedent.

    At Gen 48:5-7, Jacob adopted his two grandsons Manasseh and Ephraim; thus installing them in positions equal in rank, honor, and power to his twelve original sons, which had the effect of adding additional children to Rachel's brood just as effectively as the children born of her maid Bilhah.

    Jacob's motive for adopting Joseph's two sons was in sympathy for his beloved wife being cut off during her child-bearing years, which subsequently prevented her from having any more children of her own. Ephraim and Manasseh brought Rachel's total up to six. (No doubt Asenath-- the two boys' biological mother --was none too pleased with Jacob's idea but what was she to do? Jacob's word was law in the Israel of that day.)

    Now, fast-forward to the New Testament where the angel of The Lord spoke to Joseph in a dream and instructed him to take part in naming Mary's out-of-wedlock baby.

    "She will give birth to a son, and you are to give him the name Jesus" (Matt 1:21)

    Joseph complied.

    "And he gave him the name Jesus." (Matt 1:25)

    So Jesus went in the books as Joseph's son; because that's how it worked in those days when a man stood with a woman to name her child. In other words: Jesus became Joseph's son by means of adoption, just as Ephraim and Manasseh became Jacob's sons by means of adoption.

    Q: But wouldn't it be more accurate to say that Jesus was Joseph's foster child rather than adopted child?

    A: Webster's defines "foster" as affording, receiving, or sharing nurture or parental care though not related by blood or legal ties. In other words: foster children have no inheritance rights nor a legitimate place in their foster father's genealogy, i.e foster children are expendable.

    In contrast; Webster's defines "adopt" as to take voluntarily (a child of other parents) as one's own child. In other words: adopted children have inheritance rights and a legitimate place in their adopted father's genealogy, i.e. adopted children are permanent.

    Jesus' adoption was essential because though he was born David's progeny, he wasn't born Solomon's; and that was a rub because God chose Solomon to inherit David's throne. Well; Mary's father Eli wasn't related to Solomon, rather, he was related to Solomon's brother Nathan. Plus, the throne never passes down through women, only men. Mary could provide Jesus a biological connection to David, but she could not provide him a royal connection; that had to come via Joseph.

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  2. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    Matthew is Joseph's line , Luke 3 is Mary's line not to Solomon but through David's son Nathan
     
  3. Zuno Yazh

    Zuno Yazh Member

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    According to Matthew's genealogy, Jesus Christ is in Solomon's royal line to David's throne.

    Back down the line leading up to Jesus is a guy named Coniah (a.k.a. Jechonias, a.k.a. Jechoniah, a.k.a. Jeconiah, a.k.a. Jehoiachin). He was a very bad king in Solomon's royal line; so bad that God black-listed him with a curse that reads like this:

    Jer 22:29-30 . . O land, land, land, hear the word of the Lord! Thus said the Lord: Record this man as without succession, one who shall never be found acceptable; for no man of his offspring shall be accepted to sit on the throne of David and to rule again in Judah.

    It's surprising the number of Christians I encounter who sincerely believe that one of the primary reasons why Jesus was virgin-born was to evade that curse. Their idea might have worked had not Joseph adopted him. Because of that; Jesus is solidly in Solomon's royal line and thus right in the cross hairs of that curse --or so it appears.

    The wording "to rule again in Judah" indicates that the curse on Coniah's male posterity was limited to the time of his family's jurisdiction in Judah. So it was in effect only during the days of the divided kingdom with Judah in the south and Samaria in the north.

    That condition came to an end when Nebuchadnezzar crushed the whole country and led first Samaria, and then later Judah, off to Babylonian slavery. When Messiah reigns, the country of Israel won't be divided north and south; it will be one unified land. His jurisdiction won't be limited to Judah within a divided kingdom, but will dominate all of Eretz Israel. So the curse does not apply to him.

    Ezek 37:21-22 . .You shall declare to them: Thus said the Lord God: I am going to take the Israelite people from among the nations they have gone to, and gather them from every quarter, and bring them to their own land. I will make them a single nation in the land, on the hills of Israel, and one king shall be king of them all. Never again shall they be two nations, and never again shall they be divided into two kingdoms.

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    #3 Zuno Yazh, Mar 19, 2018
    Last edited: Mar 19, 2018
  4. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    Solomon is in Joseph's line not Mary
     
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