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Words missing or added in Jude 25?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by robycop3, Jun 16, 2018.

  1. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Jude 25, KJV:
    25 To the only wise God our Saviour, be glory and majesty, dominion and power, both now and ever. Amen.

    NKJV:
    To God our Savior, Who alone is wise, Be glory and majesty, Dominion and power, Both now and forever.
    Amen.


    NASV:
    to the only God our Savior, through Jesus Christ our Lord, be glory, majesty, dominion and authority, before all time and now and forever. Amen.

    The NIV & some others read similarly to the NASV.

    Now, do the KJV, NKJV, YLT, & a few others, leave out the words "through Jesus Christ our Lord", and does the NASV & some others leave out "wise"? Or did some versions ADD some words?
     
  2. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    The newer versions use different mss than the KJV & NKJV used. So, it’s more of a question which mss are correct, imo.
     
  3. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Nothing has been added or deleted in the various English versions. The difference is a variant between the Byzantine Text and the Alexandrian Text.

    Jude 1:25 (Byzantine) μονω σοφω θεω σωτηρι ημων δοξα και μεγαλωσυνη κρατος και εξουσια και νυν και εις παντας τους αιωνας αμην.

    Jude 1:25 (Alexandrian) μονω θεω σωτηρι ημων δια ιησου χριστου του κυριου ημων δοξα μεγαλωσυνη κρατος και εξουσια προ παντος του αιωνος και νυν και εις παντας τους αιωνας αμην.

    In my opinion the longer reading of the Alexandrian Text is probably due to a scribal gloss.
     
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  4. InTheLight

    InTheLight Well-Known Member
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    KJV omits "Jesus Christ our Lord".

    KJV-onlyists need to deal with it.

    Sent from my Nexus 7 using Tapatalk
     
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  5. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Thanks for your responses so far. I, too, believe it's a differences in mss. However, KJVOs insist only THEIR pet mss. are correct, but they cannot prove it.
     
  6. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    I believe this question has been settled - Differences in manuscripts being translated.
     
  7. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    And the meaning is still existentially the same!
     
  8. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    Most often it is the KJV (and underlying Greek text) that "piously conflates" or adds words. This is a rare case where the KJV does NOT make this faulty jump and the other manuscripts do.

    But to say one English translation "omits" a pious phrasing is trolling for argument, not looking at the simply manuscript evidence. I could give 50 places where it appears a modern English translation does what the KJV did in this case (omit words they consider added by well-meaning scribes/copyists and not in the original text) and hear all the rhetoric how such translations are not inspired.
     
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