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Featured How was Christ Forsaken?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by JonC, Dec 5, 2018.

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  1. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    yes, totally agree but not from Adam,,
     
  2. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Paul, in His discourse on contrasting the first and the second Adam!
     
  3. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Its called original Sin!
     
  4. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    yes, but there was sin earlier, I suppose it was original for the physical world , and resulting curse
     
  5. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    "second Adam" is not in the KJV " last Adam "is
    1Co 15:45

    And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.

    It is showing how through one man many can be affected
     
  6. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    The fall of Adam cursed us and the creation itself!
     
  7. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    When my son was about 7 years old he asked me if Santa was real. I asked him if it made sense to him that a big fat guy pulled by flying reindeer brought presents all around the world. He thought about it and said "yes".

    Sometimes people choose to see what they want to see.
     
  8. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    yes, your and our physical existence but you are more, you are 100% spiritual and 100% man..
     
  9. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    I have shown scripture,

    but everybody knows since Star Trek, Santa has a transporter


    in different thought, few here would know "How 'bout dem dawgs?" but I bet you do.
     
  10. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Jesus being a man on that cross did cry out to God, "Why hath Thou forsaken Me?"
     
  11. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    NORAD. Gota love 'em.

    You did offer Scripture. The issue, however, is that you did not offer Scripture proving your point. You said God forsook Jesus and offered this could mean "abandon" or to "leave in straits". At least you show both of our views possible by definition. But you haven't shown why yours is correct via Scripture.
     
  12. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    yes but not because of Adam
     
  13. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Do you know why God subjected Creation to futility?
     
  14. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    He became sin.
    2Co 5:21
    For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

    God won't behold sin,
    Hab 1:13
    Thou art of purer eyes than to behold evil, and canst not look on iniquity: wherefore lookest thou upon them that deal treacherously, and holdest thy tongue when the wicked devoureth the man that is more righteous than he?

    Forsaken or separation from sin
    Mar 15:34
    And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsakenme?

    Fellowship restored after sacrifice
    Eph 5:2
    And walk in love, as Christ also hath loved us, and hath given himself for us an offering and a sacrifice to God for a sweetsmelling savour.

    Heb 10:12

    But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
     
  15. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    oh no, creation is part of redemption. God had to be human in order to save us

    Heb 2:14
    Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;
     
  16. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    "For the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of him who subjected it, in hope that the creation itself will be set free from its bondage to corruption and obtain the freedom of the glory of the children of God." Was what I had in mind. But I like yours too.
     
  17. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Yet none of these verses state that God separated from Jesus.

    2Co 5:21 Jesus was made to be sin (or as many have noted, a "sin offering"). A less literal approach would be that God considered Jesus as if he were sin, or punished our sin in him. A heretical approach would be that God literally made Jesus to be sin (to literally be evil).

    Hab 1:13 is the author appealing to God's nature - that God cannot condone sin. This is actually support for the fact God did not abandon Christ. But more than that, this verse proves that Jesus did not literally become something God couldn't "see" as Jesus is God. The verse applies just as much to the Son as it does the Father.

    Forsaken or separation from sin
    Mar 15:34
    Jesus was forsaken to suffer the agony of the cross. No verse presents a separation between the Father and the Son.

    Eph 5:2
    Christ loved us that he died for us. And this was in obedience to the Father, who viewed Christ as his beloved.

    Heb 10:12
    But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God

    Yep. And none of these verses come even close to advocating the view that God separated from Christ or even that the Father was wrathful towards the Son.
     
  18. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    All aspect of us got tainted and corrupted by the fall...
     
  19. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Jesus experienced and tasted hell while upon that Cross, are lost sinners forsaken by God?
     
  20. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    You keep making the mistaking of the father somehow placing His wrath upon Jesus for something that he had done, but the truth is that Jesus became the One to bear in full on Himself the due wrath of the Living God because of what we had done, not for anything he had done!
     
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