Featured Gift of tongues?

Gift of tongues?

Gift of ears?

 

It is my understanding that the Biblical gift was God speaking, Acts of the Apostles 2:4; Deuteronomy 8:3.

That it would cease when two other gifts of the Spirit, which were given in part were as being in part were done away by their respective perfect. 1 Corinthians 13:8-10; James 1:17. That the word of God was always perfect, Psalms 19:7; James 1:25.

This would happen at a time the Apostle was present with the Lord, 1 Corinthians 13:12; 2 Corinthians 5:8.

And I am persuaded those two speaking gifts that were in part became perfect at the giving of the Revelation 1:1-3; Revelation 22:18, nothing to be added to the hearing of it.

 

We have 2 ears 1 mouth, so we should listen twice as much as speaking.

 

Pollster Ed Stetzer reported that 55% of Southern Baptist pastors in a Lifeway Research study said that Tongues are still given to believers:



http://www.bpnews.net/25765/lifeway-releases-prayer-language-study

 

The Greek word glossa ("tongue") had two core meanings: that thing in your mouth that you taste with, and "language." The idea of an "unknown tongue" came from the KJV, which added the word "unknown" to the English KJV though it was not there in the original. But the KJV translators were not thinking of a language no one on earth knew, but simply a language unknown to the hearers.

Therefore, the interpretation that tongues are some kind of heavenly language has no basis in Scripture. Linguists have examined such claimed instances by Charismatics, and found them to be no language, but gobbledygook. (I can give sources and quotes.)

As for the question, "Are tongues for today?" God can do anything He wants to. He can give a miraculous gift of speaking a foreign language as He did in Acts 2, where the languages are specifically mentioned. But frankly, I look with skepticism on all such instances I've heard about, since they are always

 

1Co 13:8¶
Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away.
1Co 13:9
For we know in part, and we prophesy in part.
1Co 13:10
But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away

Scripture trumps tongues

 

That which is perfect has yet to Come

 

Well, ". . . Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, . . ." Of messengers, could be understood that way in contrast to that of men.

 

It shouldnt. Its hyperbole used to make a point

 

Good point, but Paul was being hypothetical, not declaring that there were actual heavenly languages. (My Hebrew prof thought they spoke Hebrew up there. ) Paul is using the Greek word ean for "if," which indicates the sentence is a 3rd class condition, which is used to depict possibilities, not reality.

 

no, scripture is complete teleioo

Rev 22:18
For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
Rev 22:19
And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.

 

Well, that resriction was to that book. Now with the understanding all holy scripture is revelation of Jesus Christ, yes. Revelation 19:10; Luke 24:44.

 

Sigh, those verses do not support your claim in fact they have nothing to do with it

 

What makes you believe that that which is perfect refers to Scripture and not the final victory of the Kingdom?

 

you have the opportunity to revise and extend your remarks

 

Scripture is complete and why would tongues be needed, The Holy Spirit can give direction to any hearer anyway so why speak in a unknown tongue? Speak in the tongue you know and it ids heard in many.

Act 2:6
Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.
Act 2:7
And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?
Act 2:8
And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
Act 2:9
Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
Act 2:10
Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
Act 2:11
Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God

The hearing was unique not the speaking, as Hank D posted

Jesus said His work was finished and Scripture cannot be added or removed. What else is there to complete?

 

You actually did not address my question. My question was not whether Scripture was complete. My question is how do you know that Scripture is the perfect thing that 1 Corinthians 13 is actually referring to and not the perfect Kingdom that is to come?

 

Nope im good.