Difference between KJV and YLT in Dt 28:32

Difference between KJV and YLT in Dt 28:32

Deuteronomy 28:32

28:32 בָּנֶיךָ וּבְנֹתֶיךָ נְתֻנִים לְעַם אַחֵר וְעֵינֶיךָ רֹאֹות וְכָלֹות אֲלֵיהֶם כָּל־הַיֹּום וְאֵין לְאֵל יָדֶֽךָ׃

וְאֵין לְאֵל יָדֶֽךָ׃


KJV

Thy sons and thy daughters shall be given unto another people, and thine eyes shall look, and fail with longing for them all the day long: and there shall be no might in thine hand.


YLT

`Thy sons and thy daughters [are] given to another people, and thine eyes are looking and consuming for them all the day, and thy hand is not to God!


I think there is a huge difference between 2 translations.

Mostly El אלis translated into God, Angel, Mighty Man etc. Here it may mean the Strength.

But YLT rendered it to God.

In that case, your hand will not be for the God or

Your hand will not belong to God, which is not impossible.

If we render El as the strength,

< There will be nothing for the strength of your hand >, which may be a little different from KJV again.


What do you think about this?


Eliyahu

 

KJV sometimes depart from the literal translation while YLT stays with such principle.
For example Deut 7: 4 and 8 is translated as the plural in KJV though they should be singular.
In general such deviation doesn't make any difference in the meaning. So such minor errors are ignored.
However, sometimes KJV missed the deep meaning of the words
For example, KJV didn't understand the meaning of Sabbato Deuteroproto in Luke 6:1

σαββάτῳ δευτεροπρώτῳ
So, KJV translated it as <the second sabbath after the first>

But YLT rendered it as < on the second-first sabbath, as he is going through the corn fields, that his disciples were plucking the ears, and were eating, rubbing with the hands >

The Second First Sabbath is the first Regular Sabbath after the Feast of Firstfruits after which the people can harvest the crops. The First First Sabbath is the High Sabbath.

There are some more mistakes in KJV plus many minor errors like the change of the numbers and tenses.

In this verse Dt 28:32), I cannot conclude which one is correct.

Eliyahu

 

If you can make light of this difference, you can ignore the most of the differences in the translations. You are out of discussion with me.

KJV stated the second sabbath after the first sabbath. It can mean any second Sabbath of any month or even the second Sabbath of the Month Abib, which is different from what is originally meant here.
The Second-First Sabbath is the Sabbath after the First-First Sabbath which is the High Sabbath. Therefore it meant the specific Sabbath after the Sabbath of the Unleavened Bread. Next day was the Day of the First-Fruits until which no one can pick up the ears of the corns.

Leviticus 23
14 And ye shall eat neither bread, nor parched corn, nor green ears, until the selfsame day that ye have brought an offering unto your God: it shall be a statute for ever throughout your generations in all your dwellings.

After the Day of Firstfruits which symbolizes the Resurrection of the Lord, people can harvest the fruits, as we can enjoy the grace period, but not on the Sabbath. However, it happened in the Presence of the Adonai of Sabbath.

Does KJV translation teach this truth to you?

You are jumping up to another issue assuming that I discern KJV based on YLT. But I just point out the differences in the translations based on the same underlying texts.
I trust the authority of the Ben Chayyim Masora and Textus Receptus, and I discern KJV from the viewpoint of Hebrew and Greek Texts.
There are not many translations based on such texts. Among KJV and YLT, I pointed out the differences between two. KJV is known as the translation using the Word-to-Word method, but in reality it is not thoroughly formal equivalence.

If the difference doesn't matter to you, any differences in translation would not matter to you. You can suck the surface of the watermelon hundred times without tasting the inner parts of it.

Eliyahu