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Featured If faith is predestined and cause by God, then answer me this.....

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by Calminian, Oct 17, 2019.

  1. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    No that's what I think. But why is that causing an issue of God causing the faith? I don't understand your hangup.
     
  2. Calminian

    Calminian Well-Known Member
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    So you disagree with my definition of reckoned?

    The NIV translates it,

    Rom. 4:5 However, to the one who does not work but trusts God who justifies the ungodly, their faith is credited as righteousness.​

    So, I'm curious, why you're not understanding what I'm saying. Please, what do you think this phrase means?
     
  3. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    No I agree with your definition. I am asking how that is in conflict with God causing/giving/gifting faith 100%? What is the hangup for you on that?
     
  4. Calminian

    Calminian Well-Known Member
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    No hang up, just wondering if you agreed. If so, I've already made the case. Why would God cause something inadequate to save? Why cause faith (100%) only to then have to credit that faith as righteousness?

    Now if faith is partly of man, it makes perfect sense. Man is not righteousness, but God credits his faith as righteousness. In this scenario, faith isn't meritorious. Faith, in and of itself, cannot earn anything, nor obligate God. Thus, the choice to credit man's faith is 100% of God. It's even monergistic!
     
  5. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    This is your hangup. What in the world are you talking about? I don't see your point.

    Man is not righteous. God gives him faith and credits that faith as the righteousness that man does not have. In other words, he makes us righteous.
     
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  6. Calminian

    Calminian Well-Known Member
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    And i have no idea why you can't grasp this. It's really simple. Why the extra step? Why created faith which is not righteous, only to then credit it as righteous? Why cause something in man that then needs an extra perfecting step?
     
  7. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Why did you ignore the second part of my post?
     
  8. Calminian

    Calminian Well-Known Member
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    Why are you not getting something so simple? LOL!
     
  9. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    That's just it, I DO get it. You are the one making things complicated because it doesn't fit your theology. Not to mention your logic is not logical at all.
     
  10. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    At first, it did to me as well.

    Then over the years, I saw that if anything is partly of men, then it's not all of God and all of His grace and mercy.
    If it's partly of men, instead of being a gift, it raises the possibility of man being able to take credit away from God for saving him.

    I agree that faith, in and of itself, is not meritorious...but if men are saved by faith, instead of through it ( Ephesians 2:8 ), then something one person has in their possession, gives them an "edge" over their fellow man when it comes to gaining God's favor.
    God then has to exercise partiality and reward that person for using what He gave them, correctly.
    With election, God bypasses the way we do things, and simply does as He wishes with sinful and guilty men.

    This results in the person being saved, seeing that they had nothing to do with any of it... and we as believers then fall on our face in genuine gratitude for His gifts.

    He gets all the glory.
     
    #30 Dave G, Oct 19, 2019
    Last edited: Oct 19, 2019
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  11. Calminian

    Calminian Well-Known Member
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    Fair enough. You might be right. But it makes more sense to me that faith needs to be credited because it's not righteousness in and of itself. It's something man can choose, but warrants no obligation from God.

    Totally agree. I get this from God taking man's faith, and crediting it as righteousness. That, to me, means salvation is 100% of God. There is no need to make faith 100% caused by God.
     
  12. Particular

    Particular Well-Known Member

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    You are contrasting the Mosaic Law with Grace which gifts us faith.
     
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  13. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    Because His word states that He does ( Romans 4 ).

    As for why, I imagine it's because He wants it that way.
    Think of it like this...

    God not only wants His children totally dependent upon Him for everything...
    In reality, all men, whether we know it or not, are dependent upon Him for every bit of good that we have as His creation.

    That goodness even leads those who refuse to repent, to repentance ( Romans 2:4 ).
    No gift of God is "inadequate".
    Each and every gift is perfect ( James 1:17 ), and suited for the task at hand.

    Paul's gifts were evangelism, preaching and teaching, among others.

    They suited him for what God had him do...go around and bring God's elect into little groups, teaching them doctrine, encouraging them in their faith and correcting them when they sinned.
    He reminded them of God's great love for His children in the midst of this nasty ( and very temporary ) world that we live in...

    To run the race set before them, and to run it well. :)
     
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  14. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    There is your trouble. You are relying on what "makes more sense to me" that's not how you should go about theology.
     
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  15. Calminian

    Calminian Well-Known Member
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    Of course. I read the Scriptures and look for what appears to me to be the most plain reading. That's all I can do.

    You, OTOH, lead with your theology, and try to fit Scripture into it. The plain reading of Romans 4 is pretty straightforward. God credits man's faith.

    Rom. 4:5 But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness,​

    Sorry but that's what it says. "his faith." To me, his faith means his faith. That make more sense to me.
     
  16. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    But that's not what you are doing when you say, "It makes more sense to me...."

    If I give you a gift it is now yours. No contradiction there.
     
  17. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    Amazingly enough, I agree with you in this statement.;)
    There's where we disagree, unfortunately.
    Again,
    If man can choose, we then go right back to man's salvation being dependent upon what we have done, possessed, "exercised", etc.
    One man can now gain an "edge" over his fellows, and procure ( yes, buy ) his escape from God's wrath.

    According to the "legal language" of God's word, He is obligated to save those who believe, from the heart ( Romans 10:9-10 ).
    He is obligated to save those who have genuine faith ( notice that I differentiate between genuine, and false faith ).

    He obligates Himself ( that's what covenants are, God obligating Himself to a set of promises that He is determined to keep and will unfailingly keep ), we cannot force Him to make obligations.



    So, if faith is available to all men, and salvation partly a work of men and partly of God, then that takes impartiality off the table....and puts it in the hands of men who will then climb all over each other in a mad dash to "get saved", as I see it.

    That's man-made religion at its finest, if you ask me.
    Mankind doing all sorts of things to gain His favor.:(
     
    #37 Dave G, Oct 19, 2019
    Last edited: Oct 19, 2019
  18. Calminian

    Calminian Well-Known Member
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    I just explained to you what I meant by "it makes more sense to me."

    And if that gift is freely accepted, it's still a gift. Accepting a gift is not the same as earning it.
     
    #38 Calminian, Oct 19, 2019
    Last edited: Oct 19, 2019
  19. Calminian

    Calminian Well-Known Member
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    Amen then! We can at least agree that faith is not righteousness, and needs to be credited as such.

    So then, accepting a gift is the same as earning a gift? If that's the reasoning, I can see the hangup. But I don't see this principle anywhere in Scripture. Where is accepting a gift, in Scripture, described as partially earning it? I don't see it in Scripture, in ANE culture, or even in modern culture. So where does this idea come from?
     
  20. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    There is a difference between reaching out and taking something that is offered, and going about one's daily life and having it dropped into one's lap.

    I believe, in the light of Romans 10:20, that eternal life is such a gift.
    Unexpected, unsought ( Romans 3:10-18 ), and totally of God.

    To me, that's the only way that it can truly be a gift, instead of being a reward.
    Answered above, and I've already gone through this in another thread, if you care to have a look at past ones.
    Romans 4:4, Romans 11:5-6.
    Where is it declared as anything but being received, passively?
    If you don't mind me asking,
    Where do you get the idea that accepting a gift is part of the giving?

    God's word, or man's way of doing things?
     
    #40 Dave G, Oct 19, 2019
    Last edited: Oct 19, 2019
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