Featured Turning His back on Jesus

Does the Bible actually say that?

 

2 Corinthians 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

 

Of course not (John 16:32).

 

My question was: does the Bible actually say the Father "turned his back on Christ?" The answer is no. Of course Christ was made sin for us, paying our sin debt in full. That's not the question I asked, though.

 

Not in so many words. Indeed, since God is Spirit, such an idea is an anthropomorphism. Moreover, one of the attributes of God is that He is omni-present (Psalms 139:7-12).
However, we read, in Habakkuk 1:13, 'You are of purer eyes than to behold evil, and cannot look [approvingly] upon wickedness.' Christ was bearing all the sin of His people (Isaiah 53:6; 1 Peter 2:24) and likewise the curse that attaches to sin (Galatians 3:10-14); therefore it follows that God would withdraw His felt presence.
The sky turned dark in the middle of the day to symbolize this. It is evident that the Lord Jesus had no consciousness of His Father's presence and this is what wrung from Him that dreadful cry, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?" It is significant that at the moment He was being crucified, He prayed to the Father (Luke 23:34), and at the end of His suffering, when propitiation had been made, He does so again (Luke 23:46). But there in the darkness, feeling utterly forsaken, He cries out, "My God......"

 

Perhaps one could make the argument that he turned his back on him even though he did not hide his face from him. Psalm 22:23-24 (NIV):

You who fear the Lord, praise him!
All you descendants of Jacob, honor him!
Revere him, all you descendants of Israel!
For he has not despised or scorned
the suffering of the afflicted one;
he has not hidden his face from him
but has listened to his cry for help.​

 

This thread, like so many, has the OP putting forth a questionable premise, and asking others to prove it false, rather than presenting support from scripture for the premise. Unsound

 

I would say He did. Thus Christ suffering Spiritual Death; being strictly defined as separation from The Father, nothing more.

 

Technically, He was forsaken. God is omnipresent. And His soul died being forsaken on the cross. Isaiah 53:10; Isaiah 53:12; John 10:17-18, Romans 5:8. And in dying for our sins (sheding His blood). He never ceased being the God who cannot die, Hebrews 1:3. So by way of His Son, the God who never died (1 Timothy 1:17), died too.

 

Amen! Follow Psalms 22 through to verse 21: "You have answered Me." It was the ninth hour (3 pm) when Jesus gave His cry, and at that very moment, the sun reappeared, and our Lord could give a second cry "It is finished!" It was accomplished; it was completed; it was paid. Divine justice was satisfied, and God is seen to be just and the justifier of the one who trusts in Jesus

 

The very word translateed "It is finished" is the word translated, "accomplished," where it says, ". . . Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, . . ." John 19:28. This was before He physically died. And His soul was restored to life and His fellowship was again with His Father, Luke 23:46.

 

Amen.

 

It is also the word translated 'pay' in Matthew 17:24. I am told that during the Roman Empire, the word was used in all sorts of financial transactions, meaning 'Paid in Full.'

 

Answer the questions to my post 49 in the thread, Where was Jesus for three days? in the
Fundamental Baptist Forum

 

Yes, that word in its varous grammatical useages in the NT occurs some 26 times. But as τετελεσται only twice.