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Featured Could Christ have sinned?

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by Hobie, Jan 2, 2021.

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  1. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    No. It substiants God incarnate.

    God is not a weakling. Jesus had the ability to tell His parents "no". It was a matter of forming the word in the vernacular.

    The point of Scripture was the Word becoming flesh - God becoming man - tempted in all points as we are but without sin.

    Jesus could have pronounce the word "no". Jesus was not bound by some external force. Jesus did not sin. It was not a matter of inability but of the will.

    Jesus submitted to the will of the Father. It was voluntary. Jesus did not sin. It was because He chose not to sin.
     
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  2. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    for the wages of the sin, death
    and of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, thou dost not eat of it, for in the day of thine eating of it -- dying thou dost die.'

    Did Jesus who knew, no sin, yet was made sin, die the death assigned for sin? For how long did he experience, death because of our sins?

    I believe the only, sin, he had to strive against, was becoming obedient unto death even the death of the cross.
     
  3. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Your interpretation that a Person in the Godhead could lie is idiotic. Why? There is only the one God. And the Persons who are the one and the same God are one and the same God and not gods.
     
  4. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Firstly, the English word "tempt", does not always have the meaning of "tempting to sin". Like the actual meaning of the Greek verb πειράζω, it literally means, "to test, put to the test, to try", with the hope that the person "tested", might, not will, succumb. This I believe should be the meaning used in the Lord's Prayer, "lead us not into testing", and not "temptation", which gives the false impression, that as if God does do so, and we are petitioning Him not to.

    Secondly, for Jesus Christ to have been able to have sinned, He would have had to have a "fallen" human nature, which would have been "capable" of sinning. We know from Scripture, that even from the womb of Mary, Jesus Christ is called "Holy" (Luke 1:35), where the Greek ἅγιος, here has the meaning, "pure, sinless, holy". In Romans 8:3, Paul writes, "κατεκρινεν την αμαρτιαν εν τη σαρκι", that is, "He condemned sin in the flesh". The phrase depends on "κατεκρινεν". Had Paul written, "την εν τη σαρκι", then Paul would have affirmed that there was sin in the human nature of Jesus. But this construction shows beyond any doubt, that Jesus Christ, as the God-Man, even from His conception in the womb of Mary, was "sinless, pure and holy". Which is why Paul says very clearly in Philippians 2:7, of the post-Incarnate Christ, that He was "being made in the likeness of men". Here the Greek ὁμοίωμα, denotes that He "resembled" humans, not that His human nature was not real, but that, as He alone was "sinless" in His human nature, that this "separated Him from sinners" (Hebrews 7:26). This verse in Hebrews 7 is very important in the study of the Person of Jesus Christ.

    "For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens"

    "Holy" we have already seen. "harmless", is, ἄκακος, that is, "innocent, free from guilt". "undefiled", ἀμίαντος, "free from the stain of ungodliness, without any contamination". The great detail that is used for the Person of the Lord Jesus' human nature, is very important, lest any even suppose that in Him is ANY sin, or capability of sin.

    Thirdly, The Second Person of the Godhead, the Lord Jesus Christ, from eternity past, IS Almighty God. He did NOT lay aside His Deity when He "became Man", but "took upon Himself" the "very nature" of humans, apart from any sinfulness. Jesus Christ, as His Incarnation, became the God-Man, that is, 100% God and 100% Man, both perfect natures in One Person. As "God manifested in the flesh" (1 Timothy 3:16), "God cannot be tempted with evil" (James 1:13). That is, it is not possible to "tempt God to evil", this is against His Holy Nature, they very same "nature" that IS always present in the Lord Jesus Christ. As we have seen, the human "nature" of Jesus Christ, even from conception in Mary, is completely PERFECT in every way, not only "sinless", but also "incapable of sin", by the very fact that Jesus Christ is ever the Almighty God.

    Fourthly, to even suggest that Jesus Christ, the God-Man, was "capable of sinning", but chose not to, is very dangerous, and I believe something that the devil has got Christians, not only discussing, but also believing. This is nothing less than a direct attack on the very Person of the Lord Jesus Christ, with the absurd notion that somehow, a Perfect Person, can be "tempted to do evil". Exactly how this is even remotely possibe, is beyond me. Since Jesus Christ is 100% Perfect in His entire Person, HOW could He ever "given into temptation to sin"?

    Christians should be very careful not to try to understand things that they are strictly not allowed to. It is like us faillible humans, trying to understand the origin of sin, where did this come from. This is a no-go doctrine for any Christian, as probing into such, wil no doubt cause you to fall into the trap of the devil.
     
  5. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    you are very much in grave error here!
     
  6. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    fristly, Jesus Christ is NOT "anyone"! Secondly, He IS ALWAYS Almighty God, and at His Incarnation, "became Man", though remaining God. BOTH His Divine and Human natures are 100% Perfect, and therefore, INCAPABLE of sin. Jesus' human nature is NOT "fallen", but "without sin, holy". ONLY if Jesus Christ had a "fallen human nature", would it have been possible for the devil to have tempted Him to sin. Your Christology is very much faulty, and very dangerous!
     
  7. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    absolute nonsense! Jesus Christ the God-Man, IS Perfect in every way, His human nature is Perfect, not fallen, and therefore incapable of any sin!
     
  8. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    This "theology" is not only very foolish and dangerous, but blasphemy!
     
  9. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    see #24, you are way out of your depth here, and guilty of very dangerous sin, if you do not change your thinking on this extremely important subject.
     
  10. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    then you belief is VERY wrong! see # 24. There are many on here that are way out of their depth on their Christology, and saying dangerous things about the Person of the Lord Jesus Christ, because they are assuming that the human nature of Jesus Christ is exactly as our own, which is not the case!
     
  11. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    just ONE Scriptue to back up this utter rubbish?
     
  12. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    simply put, but 100% correct! People on here just do not understand Christology, especailly the Person of the Lord Jesus Christ, in His post-Incarnate life. it was and is IMPOSSIBLE for Jesus Christ, THE God-Man, Perfect in every way, to ever have "fallen" into sin, but somehow "chose" not to. This is what the Apostle Paul calls, a "doctrine of demons" because its origin is in the pit of hell!
     
  13. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    God Most High.

    Scripture never makes God less than man. The point of divine righteousness is not that God is weak, bound by rules of conduct while man has freedom. Righteousness is not moral shackles restraining God like the rules of the lamp restrain a genie.

    Righteousness is descriptive of God - never prescriptive.

    It is impossible for God to sin because God is holy. It is impossible for God to sin because God is Love. It is impossible for God to sin because evil is not in God's nature.

    But your insistence that God is weak and powerless, bound by a moral code He cannot break is simply blasphemy. God is omnipotent. He IS that moral code - He is not a chained god or your personal gen.

    All through Scripture we see a reliance on God's righteousness, NOT God's inability. It is impossible for God to lie or to sin.....NOT because hehe is less than omnipotent but because He is righteousness.

    Your implication that some mystical code is greater than God is wrong. God is God Most High.
     
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  14. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    and just where did I even suggest this? Your Christology here is so very unbiblical! None of your arguments can even find ONE verse from the Bible to support it! I asked for ONE Scripture before, and all you could do, is add more nonsense to what you have already said.
     
  15. Lodic

    Lodic Well-Known Member

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    I refer back to the Council of Chalcedon (AD 451), which affirmed that Jesus is truly God and truly Man. Nobody on this discussion disputes that point. Augustine said that Jesus had "the posse peccare" and "the possee non peccare" - the ability to sin and the ability not to sin. We agree that the divine nature cannot sin. If Christ's divine nature prevented Him from even having the ability to sin, in what sense did He obey the Law of God as the 2nd Adam? Satan did everything in his power to get Jesus to sin. This would have been an exercise in futility if this were impossible. He was trying to get Christ's human nature to sin so He would not be qualified to be the Savior.

    Christ was uniquely sanctified and ministered to by the Holy Spirit. In John 4:34, Jesus said that His food was to do the will of the One Who sent Him. With His zeal for righteousness, He had no desire to sin. As long as He had no desire, He would not sin. To sum up, if it were impossible for Christ to sin, the temptation, the tests, and assuming the role of the 2nd Adam would have all be a game of charades.
     
  16. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    refute what I have said in #24
     
  17. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    This is your faulty understanding of the Person of the Lord Jesus Christ. You have failed to show, how Jesus Christ, with a Perfect, Sinless, human nature, could have "fallen", which is only possible if His human nature was completely like our own, which has "sinfulness" in it. This is not in Christ's human nature. So, as the God-Man, not "exalted Man", Who IS Percfect, how could He have "possibly sinned"? I really don't know why people want to even discuss such a teachings that no doubt has its origin in hell. Augustine believed in a heretical view of the Atonement of Jesus Christ, so I don't listen to much of what he says!
     
  18. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    next you will be saying that Jesus could have not gone to the cross, because of what He said in the Garden, which is also much misunderstood!
     
  19. Lodic

    Lodic Well-Known Member

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    Moot point. He said "not My will, but Thy will" throughout His entire life.
     
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  20. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    It is impossible that I cheat on my wife.
    It is impossible that I run a marathon.

    The first is a matter of character and nature, not ability.

    The second is a matter of ability, not character or nature.
     
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