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Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by PastorMark, Feb 24, 2006.

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  1. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Perfect in the sense of lacking nothing necessary to the whole? Yes.
     
  2. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    So, are you saying that God made a mistake when He led the KJV1611 translators to write "God" in 2 Chron 28:11 but "LORD" in the 1769 you use?

    Or when Isaiah 49:13 says "God" in the 1611 but "LORD" in the 1769?

    And what about Mark 10:18 where the 1611 says "no man" but the 1769 says "none?" Did Providence fail?
     
  3. SoulWinningLady

    SoulWinningLady New Member

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    Perfect in the sense of lacking nothing necessary to the whole? Yes. </font>[/QUOTE]I am still confused with this concept.
    Bare with me.
    You believe that one specific manuscript is the perfect Word of God, or just the autographs?
    Also, do you consider the manuscriptes as one volume or just some parts of it?
    :confused:
     
  4. standingfirminChrist

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    In the Old Testament, God was often referred to as Lord.


    The Hebrew word for Lord 'Y@hovah' can be translated as God
    2 Chronicles 28:11 - no contradiction.
    Isaiah 49:13 - no contradiction


    The Greek word for none, 'oudeis' can be translated as no man
    Mark 10:18 - no contradiction
     
  5. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    As this thread has reached the standard five page limit it will be closed no earlier than 0800 EST
     
  6. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    We are speaking of a translation. There is a contradiction in that the English words are different in the two editions.

    "Things which are different are not the same".

    Some claim that when Jesus said that not one jot or tittle would pass from the law that it meant the very words and spelling of those words along with the Hebrew minutia of the words (such as the holem or dagesh forte) would not pass from the text or be changed in any way. By some unusual exercise in logic they claim that this must also apply to a translation.

    God is incapable of the smallest error even a spelling error.

    According to that logic there can be "only" one Bible ordained by God.

    Some theologians of the Church of Rome solved the problems produced by this logic by proclaiming that the Latin of the Latin Vulgate was the "language of heaven" and that the Vulgate was the "only" Word of God and even superior to the Greek and Hebrew.

    History has been known to repeat itself. At least one other modern "expert" has claimed that the English "errors" in the AV themselves are "inspired" (or at least the result of the hand of God - "advanced revelation")

    The Church of England itself however had no such doctrine and fully understood that men make errors but not God.

    The proof is that AV translators and those churchmen who followed them took great care to correct those human errors discovered in the AV text for over two centuries.


    HankD
     
  7. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Closed at 1100 EST
     
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