Does having imperfect translations attack God's character and preservation?

What did I ask you to look up? You misread what I said.

Job 3:8

KJV said mourning

NKJV said Leviathan

Why are they different?

 

Duh! Job is in the Old Testament! The Old Testament is not translated from the Textus Receptus. You can't post a single instance of where the NKJV NT departs from the TR to follow the CT because it doesn't.

But, if you want to look at the Old Testament, fine. The Hebrew reads "livyathan." The KJV translates that same word as "leviathan" 5 times. I guess you are saying the KJV is wrong those 5 times?

Oh, and, by the way. The real KJV, the 1611 edition, reads "Or, Leviathan" in the margin.

Why the difference? Simple. There was an old saying in Jobs day "raise up a leviathan and lose your fishing boat." The idea is that TOO big a catch can be dangerous. So, it was a metaphor for mourning, feeling sad, or contemplating some disaster. To "raise up leviathan" was to "raise up mourning." Get it now?

[ April 13, 2004, 01:38 AM: Message edited by: skanwmatos ]

 

Dear askj,

You have been shown that in Mathew 20:20:

KJV Then came to him the mother of Zebedees children with her sons, worshipping him, and desiring a certain thing of him.

NKJV Then the mother of Zebedee's sons came to Him with her sons, kneeling down and asking something from Him.

The difference between "worshipping" and "kneeling" is a translational difference between versions and not a textual difference between the Greek texts, the root word proskeneo is used in both Greek texts.

So, you presumably have 1999 more. Is there even one these remaining NKJV/MT differences that you can point us to where the NKJV translators clearly chose an Alexandrian variant over the TR in their version?

HankD

 

Askjo,

I have no problem with three versions of Matt. 20:20. I understand them all are clear, what these are talk about.

Keep in mind, do the translators of NIV and NKJV deny that the mother of Zebedee's sons came and worshipping Jesus? Both never saying that they deny that she worshipping Christ. I am sure that they do BELIEVE she actually worshipping Christ.

Ok, let's look at picture of Matt. 20:20 in KJV first, suppose you are in mother's shoe, you bring with your sons to Christ, what would you do to Jesus with your sons? You ask for begging or plea what you want to ask Jesus about your sons.

Matt. 20:20 speaks of mother brought with her sons to Jesus, and she begged or plea to Him, she asked him of her desire of her sons being exalteth to sit beside on both sides of Him. The reason she asked him, she want to be proud of her sons, (in my mind, she seems pride while asking to him).

Tthere is no difference between three versions of Matt. 20:20. All are almost familar same grammatic, what these are talking about.

Also, there is another reference verse of Matt 20:20 in KJV is Mark 10:35. Mark 10:35 - "And James and Johnm the sons of Zebedee, come unto him, saying Master, we would that thou shouldest do for us whatsoever we shall desire." Notice Mark 10:35 in KJV, two words - mother and worshipping are not appear in Mark 10:35. Does this mean that 'mother' and 'worshipping' are excluded from Mark 10:35?

No.

Mark 10:35 tells us, they asked Christ in their own desire same as their mother asked Christ in her own desire,l that is kind of begging or plea to Christ.

See, Mark 10:35 saying nothing about being worshipping Christ. Mark 10:35 talk about two men asked with plea to Christ, same as Matt. 20:20 tells us, mother asked with plea to Christ of her sons.

I have no problem with NIV and NKJV of Matt 20:20.

You seems so picky or petty on NKJV on SMALL words on any verses to comparing with KJV.

Not necessary to picky or petty on NKJV. I see nothing wrong with NKJV. NKJV is the modern English Bible. So, therefore, KJV is also modern English Bible toooooo!

I am not surprise, what if Jesus not come yet in the next 500 years or 1000 years later, will this 2004 KJV be same as 3004 KJV in the exactly same words? No, I don't think, I expect the comparing of 2004 KJV and 3004 KJV would be different words, but SAME doctrine.

Keep in mind, there is 400 years between 1611 A.D. and 2004 A.D. of English Bible are different.

Why? Because of the culture and society is changing in generations. I do expect the culture and society would be MUCH DIFFERENT in year 3004 A.D. as our present time.

Understand my point?

Honest, I do not have NKJV with me at home. I use KJV all the times, because I usually reading KJV well. I have no problem with reading on KJV. I can read NKJV if I want to, but, not necessary.

I cannot stop Christians from reading NKJV. I do not against NKJV. If they feeling comfortable with NKJV, then go for it. I am sure that God do blessing them who read NKJV. Because NKJV have the same doctrine as KJV.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 - Amen!

 

HankD, the NKJV replacing English word in its version is NOT what the Greek NT actually said.

 

I have no problem with three versions of Matt. 20:20. I understand them all are clear, what these are talk about.

do the translators of NIV and NKJV deny that the mother of Zebedee's sons came and worshipping Jesus? Both never saying that they deny that she worshipping Christ.

Tthere is no difference between three versions of Matt. 20:20. All are almost familar same grammatic, what these are talking about.

I have no problem with NIV and NKJV of Matt 20:20.</font>[/QUOTE]The Greek word for kneeling down is gonupeteo.

The Greek word for worship is proskuneo.

Are gonupeteo and proskuneo same meaning? NEVER!

Where did the NKJV and the NIV get the word, "kneeling down" according to the Greek term on Matthew 20:20?

A Greek dictionary did NOT say that the worship is kneeling down.

A English dictionary did NOT say that the worship is kneeling down.

Both agree each other!!!!

Strong's Concordance agrees with them.

You are right, BUT the Bible said:

Isaiah 66:5
Hear the word of the LORD, ye that tremble at his word;

 

Askjo, you may have been asked this at some point before, but here goes.

What do you have to say about words/phrases in the KJV without any support in the Greek whatsoever- the best known example perhaps being the incidences in the KJV where the translators inserted the phrase "God forbid"?

 

From the Greek word "proskuneo" which is the SAME in both TR and CT Greek texts.

You lie again. Why do you keep doing that when you KNOW it is a lie? I have already posted what Strong's says and you continue to lie about it and say it doesn't say that!

Strong's: in the NT by kneeling or prostration to do homage (to one) or make obeisance, whether in order to express respect or to make supplication.

Stronger Strong's: pay homage, show reference, to kneel down.

Thayer: to fall upon the knees and touch the ground with the forehead.

BAG: prostrate oneself before, do reverence to, welcome respectfully.

All disagree with you and prove you wrong.

Strong's, as I posted, disagrees with you and proves you wrong.

 

askjo says...

I respectfully disagree to this extent: It is possible it is what the writter MEANT.

The unabridged Strong's uses the word "kneeling" as part of its word description.

Consider the context, did the sons of Zebedee actually believe at the time that Jesus was God come in the flesh? If not "kneeling down" is a proper translation in light of the repect shown to leaders and teachers in the culture of Jesus time.

Where there is little or no question concerning His deity the NKJV uses the word "worship" for proskeneo as has been already shown.

Third, your rhetoric IMO has become a smoke screen to elude the fact that you cannot show any where in the NKJV where it departs from the GREEK TEXT of the TR in favor of the Alexandrian type variant which is what this current thread is all about.

You have been shown three classic verses from the NKJV which are hallmarks of the Traditional Text, translated according to the TR Greek text.

Granted, in the KJV "proskeneo" is always translated as "worship".
On the other hand and granted, the NKJV oftentimes will share a word in translation of a given passage with an MV over the KJV, so what.

Conclusion: The NKJV DOES follow the text of the TR.

HankD

 

Click here:
Proof the NKJV Does Not Follow the Textus Receptus of the KJB

 

Click here:
Proof the NKJV Does Not Follow the Textus Receptus of the KJB </font>[/QUOTE]Yada, Yada, Yada.

Here's at least equally compelling proof (and certainly less biased) that the NKJV is a better translation of the TR than the KJV is in numerous places:


THE SUPERIOR ACCURACY OF THE NKJV
TO THE KJV’S TEXTUS RECEPTUS:
A Study of the Synoptic Gospels

by Gary R. Hudson

The King James Only movement was initially based upon a “defense of the Textus Receptus” (sometimes erroneously referred to as “the Majority Text”) Greek texts used for the KJV New Testament. Up until the early 1980s, books by David Otis Fuller (editor), Jasper James Ray, Donald A. Waite, and Edward F. Hills popularized the KJO view mainly upon a “TR-only” basis. (To this day, the King James Only Controversy remains largely a New Testament controversy). The fact that virtually every other English translation (RV, ASV, NASB, NEB, etc.) was based upon a critical edition of the Greek New Testament made it convenient for KJO advocates to discard them all in favor of “the only translation based upon the uncorrupted text,” allegedly, the Textus Receptus.

With the mass publication of the New King James New Testament in 1979 by Thomas Nelson Publishers (Old & New Testaments, 1983), however, KJO advocates were forced to radically amend their “reasons” for the exclusive use of the KJV. The dilemma KJO faced was a widely publicized, modern English translation based upon the precise readings of the TR editions followed by the KJV. (Let the reader refer to the article, “Variations in the TR Editions Reflected by the King James Translators” on this website and it will easily be demonstrated by comparison of these to the NKJV that it follows all of the KJV’s TR readings). The “word-omission” and “verse-comparison” charts distributed by KJOs would not work to discredit the NKJV because the NKJV New Testament had retained all of those words and verses “omitted in the new bibles” (Acts 8:37; I John 5:7; etc.). New “reasons” and “arguments” had to be created in order keep demanding the exclusive use of the KJV and dividing churches, pastors, fellowships, and colleges over this issue.

This is perhaps one of the main reasons why King James Onlyism has shifted from a mere TR defense to that of defending the KJV itself as an “infallible” and “perfectly preserved” translation. By adopting this extreme it will no longer make any difference whether or not the Textus Receptus is used as a basis for translation. If the KJV is the inerrant Word of God and the only Word of God, then even a very accurate English translation of the very TR from which the KJV came can be dismissed for only one real reason: it’s not the KJV.

In his tract, Is the ‘New King James Bible’ the Word of God? (Tabernacle Baptist Church, Lubbock, TX), KJO advocate Robert J. Sargent reveals this current departure of the “TR Greek-only” argument in favor of excluding the NKJV on the basis of an “only-Word-of-God” KJV:

“The conclusion reached is that the N.K.J.V. is more than mere ‘realignment to a transitory language’ (i.e. English), but that it is in many places quite different to the A.V., not a few times significantly so. This leads the reader to three distinct possibilities:

“1. The N.K.J.V. is the Word of God -- the corollary being that for 368 years we never quite had the Word of God.

“2. The Word of God was preserved only in the Massoretic Hebrew text and the Greek Textus Receptus, the A.V. and the N.K.J.B. being versions of these in English -- meaning that only those competent in Hebrew and Greek can be certain of having the Word of God.

“3. The A.V. is the Word of God providentially preserved in the English language -- and the N.K.J.B. only ‘contains’ the Word of God, but is NOT the Word of God” (Sargent, p. 1).

The first glaring inconsistency in the above author’s “three distinct possibilities” is that there is no real “distinction” at all between points #1 and #3. He reasons in point #1 that if a translation made in 1979 is affirmed as “the Word of God,” then “for 368 years we never quite had the Word of God.” But, he fails to apply this “logic” in point #3 when he affirms that the KJV is “the Word of God providentially preserved in the English language.” In point #3, another “corollary” is demanded that “we never quite had the Word of God providentially preserved in English” until 1611 A.D. (or actually, 1769, when the full KJV revision was completed). Sargent conveniently left this “corollary” out.

Note in particular how Sargent, and typically other KJOs, must now alter a position. (Similarly, all cults, by continuously accommodating their original hypothesis to revealed facts, must eventually give it up and substitute another). He now completely abandons and even flatly rejects the former “TR-only” argument used for the KJV. Under point #2, he makes it plain that to argue for “the Word of God preserved” as “the Greek Textus Receptus” along with the Masoretic Hebrew textual basis of the KJV is to limit the “certainty of having the Word of God” to a select group scholars. In other words, to argue any longer for the exclusive use of the KJV on the simple basis of the TR as “the preserved Word of God” is to in fact argue against the King James Only position! This plainly reveals the radical shift of ideas that has indeed occurred in the KJO movement as a direct result of the NKJV’s publication!

Later in his anti-NKJV tract, R. J. Sargent freely admits that the NKJV has the identical textual basis as the KJV:

“Although the N.K.J.B. is based upon the same texts as the A.V., it is equally apparent its translators showed some deference to the Critical Text, upon which other perversions are based” (Sargent, p. 3).

Let it be observed from the above that KJOs are fully aware that the NKJV is based upon the same Textus Receptus as the KJV. The remark about the translators “showing deference to the Critical Text” is completely irrelevant because they did not use the Critical text for translation. (Sargent would have to discredit the Old Scofield Bible on this basis since its editor, C. I. Scofield, also “showed some deference to the Critical Text” as his note at I John 5:7 plainly reveals.) Sargent went on to cite the NKJV preface as proof for this, but the preface is not the Biblical text. Sargent further refers to the “vast amount of footnotes” in the NKJV which make reference to the Critical Text of Nestle, but these are consigned to the NKJV margin, not its text. Since the Critical Text was left completely out of the translated text itself, all such arguments from Sargent are ad hominem to the actual text of the NKJV.

Realizing their flimsy, inconsistent and flawed foundation for this “infallible” KJV-theory, the last KJO avenue of attack is to grasp for some “major flaws” in the NKJV and “show” the KJV’s “superior translation of the TR.” Sargent tried to make this type of case against the NKJV in his tract, but never discussed in a single instance the true meaning of the underlying TR-Greek. We have dealt with the six standard anti-NKJV criticisms used by KJOs in the article, “Carter’s Criticisms of the NKJV,” on this website. There is no need in repeating these here. What should be demonstrated here, however, is the fact that in multiple instancesthe NKJV does more accurately translate the very Textus Receptus Greek used for the KJV.

Remember, it is the Textus Receptus used for the KJV that KJOs argued for initially. Sargent admits this:

“One of the foundational arguments for the A.V. being the preserved Word of God is its textual basis. The modern perversions such as the R.V., R.S.V., A.S.V., N.A.S.V., N.I.V., T.E.V. etc., are all based upon the corrupt Westcott & Hort Critical Text derived from the Vaticanus (B) and Siniaticus [sic] (Aleph) manuscripts” (Sargent, p. 3).

It is this very same Textus Receptus that the NKJV more accurately represents in the English language. The references given below from just the Synoptic Gospels are sufficient to demonstrate this fact.


1. MATTHEW 1:14. “the Christ” (NKJV); “Christ” (KJV). Gk. has the definite article.

2. Matt. 1:20. “an angel” (NKJV); “the angel” (KJV). No definite article in Gk.

3. Matt. 1:22. “by the Lord” (NKJV); “of the Lord” (KJV). Gk. preposition “hupo” is “by the agency of,” not “about” or “concerning.” In the KJV, “of the Lord” can mean either “about the Lord” or “by the agency of the Lord” and is thus ambiguous. The NKJV conveys accurately the meaning of the Gk., “by the Lord.”

4. Matt. 2:1. “after Jesus was born” (NKJV); “when Jesus was born” (KJV). Gk. verb “ginnethentos” is past tense completed action (aorist passive).

5. Matt. 2:4a. “inquired” (NKJV); “demanded” (KJV). Gk., “punthanomai” means to “ask” or “inquire,” and is so translated by the KJV at Luke 15:26.

6. Matt. 2:4b. “the Christ” (NKJV); “Christ” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

7. Matt. 2:6. “shepherd” (NKJV); “rule” (KJV). Gk., “poimaino” means to “tend” as with a flock or “shepherd” (cp. Luke 17:7; I Cor. 9:7, KJV). Another verb,“archo,” means to “rule.”

8. Matt. 2:13. “an angel” (NKJV); “the angel” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

9. Matt. 2:20. “take” (NKJV); “and take” (KJV). No “and” in Gk.

10. Matt. 2:21. “took” (NKJV); “and took” (KJV). No “and” in Gk.

11. Matt. 3:6. “the Jordan” (NKJV); “Jordan” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

12. Matt. 3:11. “carry” (NKJV); “bear” (KJV). “Bear” in the KJV could mean either “wear,” “endure,” or “carry,” and is ambiguous. The Gk. word means “carry.”

13. Matt. 4:1. “by the Spirit” (NKJV); “of the Spirit” (KJV). Gk. “hupo” is “by the agency of.” Also, “Spirit” is not capitalized here in all KJV printings, but is capitalized in all NKJVs.

14. Matt. 4:11. “left Him” (NKJV); “leaveth him” (KJV). Gk. is past tense.

15. Matt. 4:16. “dawned” (NKJV); “sprung up”(KJV). Gk. is literally to “spring up” or “rise,” but the NKJV makes a better English equivalent. Same word (anatello) is “risen” at Matt. 5:45 (KJV).

16. Matt. 4:21. “the boat” (NKJV); “a ship” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

17. Matt. 4:24. “epileptics, and paralytics” (NKJV); “and those which were lunatic, and those that had the palsy” (KJV). In expanded translation, the KJV adds seven words (“those which were...those which had the”) not in the Gk., also not italicized.

18. Matt. 4:25. “multitudes” (NKJV); “multitudes of people” (KJV). Only one word in Gk., meaning “crowds.” KJV adds “of people” (not in italics).

19. Matt. 5:9. “sons” (NKJV); “children” (KJV). Gk. is “uios” (sons), not “tekna” (children).

20. Matt. 5:13. “flavor” (NKJV); “savor” (KJV). “Savor” can mean either “fragrance” or “taste,” but the Gk. “moranthe” means “to become tasteless.” Cp. use of “savorest” in the KJV at Mark 8:33 (#155 in this study).

21. Matt. 5:15a. “lamp” (NKJV); “candle” (KJV). Gk. is “lamp.”

22. Matt. 5:15b. “basket” (NKJV); “bushel” (KJV). “Bushel” can be either a measure of grain or something that holds the grain. The Gk. is literally, “corn measure.”

23. Matt. 5:21. “murder” (NKJV); “kill” (KJV). Gk. means “murder,” and is so translated by the KJV at Matt. 19:18.

24. Matt. 5:31. “Furthermore it has been said” (NKJV); “It hath been said” (KJV). KJV failed to translate the Gk. conjunction “de” meaning “also” or “and.”

25. Matt. 6:6a “room” (NKJV); “closet” (KJV). NKJV conforms to the Greek and clears the ambiguity.

26. Matt. 6:6b. “the secret place” (NKJV); “secret place” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

27. Matt. 6:26. “more value” (NKJV); “much better” (KJV). Gk. word means “to be of superior value,” and is so translated in the KJV at Matt. 10:31.

28. Matt. 6:31. “do not worry” (NKJV); “take no thought” (KJV). Gk. word means “worry” and also occurs in Phil. 4:6 (“be careful for nothing,” KJV). Same word in 6:25, 27, 28, and 34. God never commanded us to take no thought whatever about these things because that would be impossible, just not to be overly concerned with them.

29. Matt. 7:25. “the rock” (NKJV); “a rock” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

30. Matt. 8:11. “east” (NKJV); “the east” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

31. Matt. 8:28. “no one” (NKJV); “no man” (KJV). Gk. word is an indefinite pronoun, “tina” (root, “tis”), and is without gender, meaning “someone,” “anyone,” “a person,” etc. The KJV translators acknowledged this in Matt. 21:3 and 22:46 where they rendered “tis” as “any man” with “man” in italics. The NKJV uniformly translates each occurrence without gender.

32. Matt. 8:32. “the steep place” (NKJV); “a steep place” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

33. Matt. 8:33. “the demon-possessed men” (NKJV); “the possessed of the devils” (KJV). Gk. has the plural participle.

34. Matt. 9:2a. “a paralytic” (NKJV); “a man sick of the palsy” (KJV). In expanded translation, the KJV adds “man sick of” (not in the Gk.).

35. Matt. 9:2b. “your sins are forgiven” (NKJV); “thy sins be forgiven” (KJV). Gk. has the perfect tense (completed action with present results). But, the KJV recognizes the perfect tense and translates this identical expression as “thy sins are forgiven thee” in Luke 5:20; 7:47, and 48.

36. Matt. 9:5. Same as 9:2b above.

37. Matt. 9:11. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Gk. is “teacher.” A “master” can be either a “teacher” or “lord” (cp. 10:25b).

38. Matt. 9:36. “weary” (NKJV); “fainted” (KJV). Gk. means “to be exhausted.” The multitudes had not “fainted” (ambiguous), but were tired.

39. Matt. 10:2. “first, Simon” (NKJV); “the first, Simon” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

40. Matt. 10:19. “do not worry” (NKJV); “take no thought” (KJV). Same as 6:31 above (#28).

41. Matt. 10:21. “a father his child” (NKJV); “the father the child” (KJV). Both def. articles are missing in the Gk.

42. Matt. 10:24. “A disciple” (NKJV); “The disciple” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

43. Matt. 10:25a. Same as 10:24 above.

44. Matt. 10:25b. “teacher...master” (NKJV); “master...lord” (KJV). First word is “teacher” in the Gk. NKJV makes this distinction.

45. Matt. 10:27. “the dark...the light” (NKJV); “darkness...light” (KJV). Gk. has def. articles.

46. Matt. 10:42. “only a cup of cold water in the name of a disciple” (NKJV); “a cup of cold water only in the name of a disciple” (KJV). As the Gk. indicates, NKJV properly associates “only” with the “cup of cold water.” Ambiguous in the KJV.

47. Matt. 11:14. “he is Elijah who is to come” (NKJV); “this is Elijah which was for to come” (KJV). Gk. means “is about to come.”

48. Matt. 11:29. “learn from me” (NKJV); “learn of me” (KJV). Gk. preposition is “apo” meaning “from.” KJV here could mean either to learn “from” Jesus or “about” Jesus and is thus ambiguous.

49. Matt. 12:12. Same as 6:26 above (#27).

50. Matt. 12:21. “Gentiles” (NKJV); “the Gentiles” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

51. Matt. 13:32a. “the seeds” (NKJV); “seeds” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

52. Matt. 13:32b. “greater” (NKJV); “the greatest” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

53. Matt. 13:42. “the furnace of fire” (NKJV); “a furnace of fire” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

54. Matt. 14:8. “John the Baptist’s” (NKJV); “John Baptist’s” (KJV). Gk. has def. article. KJV makes “Baptist” John’s last name!

55. Matt. 14:9. “oaths” (NKJV); “oath’s sake” (KJV). Gk. has the plural as did the original 1611 KJV (“othes”). The post-1611 publishers misplaced the apostrophe, and this remains uncorrected in every printing of the KJV to this date.

56. Matt. 14:19. “the disciples” (NKJV); “his disciples” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

57. Matt. 14:23. “evening” (NKJV); “the evening” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

58. Matt. 14:35. “recognized Him” (NKJV); “had knowledge of him” (KJV). Gk. word “epiginosko” means “to recognize” or “discern” something, as well as “knowledge of.” “Recognize” better fits the context, as it also does in Mk. 6:33; Lk. 24:16, 31; Acts 3:10.

59. Matt. 15:14. “a ditch” (NKJV); “the ditch” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

60. Matt. 15:15. “Explain” (NKJV); “Declare” (KJV). Gk. is “expound.” KJV is
ambiguous.

61. Matt. 15:22. “demon-possessed” (NKJV); “vexed with a devil” (KJV). Gk. word means “demonized.” Nothing in the context would clarify the KJV’s rendering (cp. v. 28).

62. Matt. 16:11. “Sadducees” (NKJV); “the Sadducees” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

63. Matt. 16:12. Same as 16:11 above.

64. Matt. 17:12. “about to suffer” (NKJV); “shall...suffer” (KJV). Gk. word “mello” means “to be on the point of.”

65. Matt. 17:20. “mustard seed” (NKJV); “grain of mustard seed” (KJV). Says the same thing twice in the KJV, whereas the Gk. and the NKJV do not.

66. Matt. 17:22. Same as 17:12.

67. Matt. 17:25. “Jesus anticipated him” (NKJV); “Jesus prevented him” (KJV). Gk. is “anticipated.” KJV is ambiguous.

68. Matt. 17:26. “sons” (NKJV); “children” (KJV). Gk. is “uios,” meaning “sons.”

69. Matt. 18:32. “you begged me” (NKJV); “thou desiredst me” (KJV). Gk. word means “ask” and is translated “besought” in the KJV back in v. 29. What does “desiredst” mean? No English dictionary was found, not even the Noah Webster of 1828, listing the word. It is very ambiguous sounding in the KJV, implying the servant “desired” the king somehow! (Webster does give “to express as a wish” as one meaning for “desire,” but “desiredst” is not listed). A secondary meaning of “desire” is “to ask,” but “desiredst” is a completely obsolete word. Deut. 18:16 is the only other occurrence of “desiredst” in the KJV, and the NKJV there retained it in part as “desired” whereas the NASB rendered the Hebrew word more accurately as “asked.”

70. Matt. 19:1. “the Jordan” (NKJV); “Jordan” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

71. Matt. 19:13. “but the disciples” (NKJV); “and the disciples” (KJV). Gk. word “de” can mean either “but” or “and,” but the structural contrast denotes “but.”

72. Matt. 19:16. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as 9:11 above.

73. Matt. 20:4. “And they went” (NKJV); “And they went their way” (KJV). KJV adds “their way” without italics (not in Gk.).

74. Matt. 20:22. “about to drink” (NKJV); “shall drink” (KJV). Same as 17:12 above (#64).

75. Matt. 20:27. “first” (NKJV); “chief” (KJV). Gk. word “protos” means “first.” “Chief” is ambiguous and could mean either “ruler” or “first.” The KJV renders the same word “first” in Mk. 9:35 (et al.).

76. Matt. 21:7. “They brought” (NKJV); “And brought” (KJV). No “and” in Gk.

77. Matt. 21:13. “a house of prayer” (NKJV); “the house of prayer” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

78. Matt. 21:35. “beat one” (NKJV); “and beat one” (KJV). No “and” in Gk.

79. Matt. 21:42. “This was the Lord’s doing” (NKJV); “this is the Lord’s doing”(KJV). Past tense in Gk.

80. Matt. 22:6. “treated them” (NKJV); “and entreated them” (KJV). No “and” in Gk.

81. Matt. 22:7. “destroyed” (NKJV); “and destroyed” (KJV). No “and” in Gk.

82. Matt. 22:13. “take him away” (NKJV); “and take him away” (KJV). No “and” in Gk.

83. Matt. 22:16. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as 9:11 above (#37).

84. Matt. 22:24. Same as 22:16 above.

85. Matt. 22:33. “multitudes” (NKJV); “multitude” (KJV). Gk. has plural.

86. Matt. 22:36. Same as 22:16 above.

87. Matt. 22:42. “the Christ” (NKJV); “Christ” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

88. Matt. 23:1. Same as 22:33 above.

89. Matt. 23:8. Same as 22:42 above.

90. Matt. 23:10. Same as 22:42 above.

91. Matt. 23:23. “and mercy” (NKJV); “mercy” (KJV). Gk. has the “and.”

92. Matt. 23:24. “strain out a gnat” (NKJV); “strain at a gnat” (KJV). Gk. is literally, “filter out.”

93. Matt. 23:31a. “sons” (NKJV); “children” (KJV). Gk. is “uios,” meaning
“children.”

94. Matt. 23:31b. “murdered” (NKJV); “killed” (KJV). Same as 5:21 (#23).

95. Matt. 23:37. “those who are sent to her” (NKJV); “them which are sent unto thee” (KJV). Gk. has a third person singular feminine pronoun, “auten.” This is one of the instances where the KJV translators followed the Latin Vulgate and departed completely from all printed Textus Receptus editions. Only one Greek manuscript, Codex Bezae, reads as the Vulgate.

96. Matt. 24:5. Same as 22:42 above.

97. Matt. 24:14. “the nations” (NKJV); “nations” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

98. Matt. 24:23. Same as 22:42 above.

99. Matt. 24:30. “on the clouds” (NKJV); “in the clouds” (KJV). Gk. preposition “epi” with the genitive case means “on” or “upon.”

100. Matt. 24:30. “one” (NKJV); “the one” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

101. Matt. 24:43. “broken into” (NKJV); “broken up” (KJV). Gk. is literally, “dug through.” NKJV clarifies the KJV ambiguity. A house is not always “broken up” when a thief breaks in.

102. Matt. 25:5. “But while” (NKJV); “While” (KJV). Gk. has the conjunction.

103. Matt. 25:8. “are going out” (NKJV); “are gone out” (KJV). Gk. verb is a present tense passive indicative.

104. Matt. 25:41. “the everlasting fire” (NKJV); “everlasting fire” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

105. Matt. 26:17. Same as 19:16 above.

106. Matt. 26:25. “who was betraying Him” (NKJV); “which betrayed him” (KJV). Judas was still in the act of betrayal. Gk. participal, “paradidous” is present active.

107. Matt. 26:27. “Drink from it, all of you” (NKJV); “Drink ye all of it” (KJV). In the KJV, does it mean, “all of you drink from it” or “you drink all of it” (“bottoms up”)? The NKJV makes the meaning clear from the Gk.

108. Matt. 26:44. “went” (NKJV); “and went” (KJV). No “and” in Gk.

109. Matt. 26:49. “Rabbi” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Gk. word is “rabbi.” This word is Jewish, and better fits the context where Judas is identifying Jesus to the two Jewish officers.

110. Matt. 26:69. “a servant girl” (NKJV); “a damsel” (KJV). Gk. word means “maid.” “Damsel” can be either just a girl or a maid. The Gk. word is “paidiske,” meaning a female slave. It differs from “korosion,” meaning “girl.” The KJV translated “korosion” with the same word, “damsel” in Mk. 5:42.

111. Matt. 26:75. “a rooster” (NKJV); “the cock” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

112. Matt. 27:1. “morning” (NKJV); “the morning” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

113. Matt. 27:4. “innocent blood” (NKJV). “the innocent blood” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

114. Matt. 27:10. “the Lord directed me” (NKJV); “the Lord appointed me” (KJV). Gk. word means “to charge” or “direct” (suntasso). “Appointed” can mean either “directed,” “chosen,” or “charged.”

115. Matt. 27:20. “multitudes” (NKJV); “multitude” (KJV). Gk. is plural.

116. Matt. 27:24. “a tumult was rising” (NKJV); “a tumult was made” (KJV). Gk. means “to arise.”

117. Matt. 27:36. “they kept watch over Him” (NKJV); “they watched him” (KJV). Gk. word means “to guard.” KJV is ambiguous.

118. Matt. 27:54. “guarding Jesus” (NKJV); “watching Jesus” (KJV). Same as 27:36 above.

119. Matt. 28:2. “an angel” (NKJV); “the angel” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

120. Matt. 28:16. “the mountain” (NKJV); “a mountain” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

121. MARK 1:4. “a baptism (NKJV); “the baptism” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

122. Mark 2:5. “your sins are forgiven you” (NKJV); “thy sins be forgiven thee”(KJV). Same as Matt. 9:2b above (#35).

123. Mark 2:9. Same as 2:5 above.

124. Mark 2:18. “were fasting” (NKJV); “used to fast” (KJV). Gk. has a present participle, “fasting” with the verb “to be” in the third person plural imperfect indicative (“they were”).

125. Mark 2:23. “the sabbath” (NKJV); “the sabbath day” (KJV). No “day” in Gk.

126. Mark 2:24. Same as 2:23 above.

127. Mark 2:25. “he and those with him” (NKJV); “he, and those that were with him” (KJV). NKJV here is word-for-word from the Gk.

128. Mark 3:2. Same as 2:23 above.

129. Mark 3:13. “the mountain” (NKJV); “a mountain” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

130. Mark 3:17. “Sons of thunder” (NKJV); “The sons of thunder” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

131. Mark 4:1. “facing the sea” (NKJV); “by the sea” (KJV). Gk. is literally, “toward the sea” (preposition, “pros” means “to,” “toward,” or “against” with the accusative case).

132. Mark 4:13. “the parables” (NKJV); “parables” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

133. Mark 4:21. “basket...lampstand” (NKJV); “bushel...candlestick” (KJV). Same as Matt. 5:15a and 5:15b above (#21 and #22).

134. Mark 4:38. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as #37.

135. Mark 5:30. “power had gone out of Him” (NKJV); “virtue had gone out of him” (KJV). Gk. word “dunamis” means “power” (cf. Rom. 1:16, KJV). KJV is ambiguous.

136. Mark 5:35. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as #37.

137. Mark 5:39. “child” (NKJV); “damsel” (KJV). Gk. word “paidon” means “child.”

138. Mark 5:40. “child” (NKJV); “damsel” (KJV) (2 occur.). Same as 5:39 above.

139. Mark 5:41. “child” (NKJV); “damsel” (KJV). Same as 5:39 above. Note that
the KJV has “damsel” in v. 42, where “korosion” is used. Yet, in v.v. 39, 40, and 41, “paidon” was used meaning, “child.” While the KJV has “damsel” in all four verses, the NKJV makes the distinction of the Gk. words by translating as “child” in vv. 39, 40, and 41, and “girl” in v. 42.

140. Mark 6:3. “and brother of James” (NKJV); “the brother of James” (KJV). Gk. has the conj. “and,” not a def. article.

141. Mark 6:12. “that people should repent” (NKJV); “that men should repent” (KJV). Gk. is missing the noun, but the NKJV shows this by italicizing “people” while the KJV does not italicize “men.”

142. Mark 6:19. “held it against him” (NKJV); “had a quarrel against him” (KJV). Gk. “eneko” means “to entertain a grudge against.” In the margin, the KJV translators footnoted this as, “Or, an inward grudge.”

143. Mark 6:20. “and he protected him” (NKJV); “and observed him” (KJV). Gk. word means, “kept safe.” KJV is ambiguous. Herod had arrested John for defaming the king, but kept him in protective custody from the members of the royal family.

144. Mark 6:21. “the high officers” (NKJV); “high captains” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

145. Mark 6:26. “oaths” (NKJV); “oath’s” (KJV). Same as Matt. 14:9 above (#55).

146. Mark 6:32. “the boat” (NKJV); “ship” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

147. Mark 6:36. “into the surrounding country and villages” (NKJV); “into the country round about, and into the villages” (KJV). Gk. has “into” (eis) occurring only once.

148. Mark 6:38. “But he said to them” (NKJV); “He saith unto them” (KJV). Gk. has the conjunction.

149. Mark 6:41. “blessed” (NKJV); “and blessed” (KJV). No conj. in Gk.

150. Mark 6:46. “the mountain” (NKJV); “a mountain” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

151. Mark 6:56. “marketplaces” (NKJV); “streets” (KJV). Gk., “agora” means “marketplaces” and is translated “market” just four verses later in the KJV (7:4).

152. Mark 8:4. “can one satisfy” (NKJV); “can a man satisfy” (KJV). Gk. “tis” means “anyone” (see Matt. 8:28, #31) and is without gender.

153. Mark 8:6. “broke” (NKJV); “and brake” (KJV). No “and” in Gk.

154. Mark 8:10. “the boat” (NKJV); “a ship” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

155. Mark 8:33. “you are not mindful” (NKJV); “thou savorest not” (KJV). Gk. word means “thoughts.” KJV is ambiguous.

156. Mark 9:5. “Rabbi” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Gk. word means “rabbi.”

157. Mark 9:10. “questioning” (NKJV); “questioning one with another” (KJV). KJV adds three words, “one with another,” not found in Gk.

158. Mark 9:38. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as Mat.. 9:11 above (#37).

159. Mark 9:39. “can soon afterward speak evil of me” (NKJV); “can lightly speak evil of me” (KJV). Gk. is literally, “be able readily.” KJV is ambiguous.

160. Mark 10:1. “the Jordan” (NKJV); “Jordan” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

161. Mark 10:20. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

162. Mark 10:35. Same as 10:20 above.

163. Mark 11:11. “the hour was already late” (NKJV); “now the eventide was come” (KJV). The NKJV is word-for-word here from the Gk.

164. Mark 11:33. “we do not know” (NKJV); “We cannot tell” (KJV). Gk. word “oida” is “to know.” KJV is ambiguous.

165. Mark 12:12. “and went away” (NKJV); “and went their way” (KJV). Same as Matt. 20:4 above (#73).

166. Mark 12:28. “perceiving” (NKJV); “and perceiving” (KJV). No “and” in Gk.

167. Mark 12:33. “the whole burnt offerings” (NKJV); “whole burnt offerings” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

168. Mark 12:35. “the Christ” (NKJV); “Christ” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

169. Mark 12:39. “the best places” (NKJV); “the uppermost rooms” (KJV). Gk. word, “protoklisia” means literally, “first place.” KJV is ambiguous.

170. Mark 13:12. “a father his child” (NKJV); “the father the son” (KJV). Gk. is missing both def. articles, and the NKJV properly italicizes “his.” Also, Gk. “tekna” means “child.”

171. Mark 13:18. “winter” (NKJV); “the winter” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

172. Mark 13:21. “the Christ” (NKJV); “Christ” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

173. Mark 14:14. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

174. Mark 14:45. “Rabbi, Rabbi!” (NKJV); “Master, master” (KJV). Same as Matt. 26:49 above (#109).

175. Mark 14:47. “the servant” (NKJV); “a servant” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

176. Mark 14:68. “a rooster crowed” (NKJV); “the cock crew” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

177. Mark 14:69. “the servant girl” (NKJV); “a maid” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

178. Mark 14:72. “the rooster crowed” (NKJV); “the cock crew” (KJV). The NKJV italicizes the def. article missing in the Gk.

179. Mark 15:32. “the Christ” (NKJV); “Christ” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

180. Mark 15:44. “Pilate marveled that He was already dead” (NKJV); “Pilate marveled if he were dead already” (KJV). The Gk. conj. , “ei” means “if,” but in some constructions means “that” (cf. Acts 26:8, 23, KJV). The statement about Pilate asking the centurion if Jesus had been dead for any length of time (as it follows Pilate’s “marvel”) strongly suggest that the NKJV rendering is contextually correct. If Pilate was only marveling “if” Jesus were already dead, he would not have asked the centurion “whether he had been any while dead.” The reason for Pilate’s astonishment is the fact that some were known to survive more than a day after crucifixion. But, Jesus had already dismissed His Spirit to the Father!

181. Mark 16:14. “rebuked their unbelief and hardness of heart” (NKJV); “upbraided them with their unbelief and hardness of heart” (KJV). Their “unbelief and hardness of heart” are the direct object of the verb in Gk. Also, “with” in the KJV is not in the Gk.

182. LUKE 2:8. “fields” (NKJV); “field” (KJV). Gk. has the plural.

183. Luke 2:12. “the sign” (NKJV); “a sign” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

184. Luke 2:29. “Lord, now You are letting Your servant depart in peace” (NKJV); “Lord, now lettest thou thy servant depart in peace” (KJV). NKJV clarifies the indicative mood. KJV sounds almost imperative.

185. Luke 2:31. “peoples” (NKJV); “people” (KJV). Gk. is plural. The plural of “laos” in v. 31 has nations in view while the singular form in v. 32 has Israel in view. NKJV denotes this distinction.

186. Luke 2:46. “teachers” (NKJV); “doctors” (KJV). Gk. is “teachers.” KJV is ambiguous.

187. Luke 2:52. “men” (NKJV); “man” (KJV). Gk. is plural. The KJV makes it mankind in general.

188. Luke 3:3. “the Jordan” (NKJV); “Jordan” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

189. Luke 3:7. “the multitudes” (NKJV); “the multitude” (KJV). Gk. is plural.

190. Luke 3:12. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

191. Luke 3:13. “appointed for you” (NKJV); “appointed you” (KJV). The second person pronoun in Gk. is in the dative case (“for you,” “to you”).

192. Luke 3:14. “the soldiers asked him” (NKJV); “the soldiers demanded of him”(KJV). “Him” is the direct object in the Gk.

193. Luke 3:23-38. “the son of...” (NKJV); “which was the son of...” (KJV). In Christ’s genealogy from Adam, “which was” is added by the KJV translators without italics, while both the KJV and the NKJV italicize “the son.”

194. Luke 4:1. “the Jordan” (NKJV); “Jordan” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

195. Luke 4:7. “Therefore, if you will worship before me” (NKJV); “If thou therefore wilt worship me” (KJV). KJV fails to translate the Gk. adverb, “enopion” meaning “before.”

196. Luke 4:41. “the Christ” (NKJV); “Christ” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

197. Luke 5:22. “Why are you reasoning in your hearts?” (NKJV); “What reason ye in your hearts?” (KJV). The Gk. interrogative pronoun “ti” means “why?” and is thus translated in the KJV at Matt. 6:28; 7:3; Mk. 4:40; Lk. 19:33. The word for “what?” is “tis.”

198. Luke 5:23. “Your sins are forgiven you” (NKJV); “Thy sins be forgiven thee”(KJV). Gk. has the past tense of the verb (same as Matt. 9:2b above, #35). Note that the KJV translates the identical construction with emphasis on the completed action in 5:20!

199. Luke 6:16. “a traitor” (NKJV); “the traitor” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

200. Luke 6:19. “power” (NKJV); “virtue” (KJV). Same as Mark 5:30 above (#135).

201. Luke 6:23. “in like manner” (NKJV); “in the like manner” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

202. Luke 6:29. “from him who takes away” (NKJV); “him that taketh away” (KJV). Gk. preposition, “apo” means “from.”

203. Luke 6:38. “will be put” (NKJV); “shall men give” (KJV). No “men” in Gk.

204. Luke 6:48. “the rock...the rock” (NKJV); “a rock...a rock” (KJV). Gk. has both def. articles.

205. Luke 7:20. “John the Baptist” (NKJV); “John Baptist” (KJV). Gk. has def. article. KJV makes “Baptist” John’s last name.

206. Luke 7:40. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

207. Luke 8:23. “and they were filling with water” (NKJV); “and they were filled with water” (KJV). Gk. has an imperfect participle, which is past time continuous action.

208. Luke 8:27. “on the land” (NKJV); “to land” (KJV). Gk. prep. “epi” means “on” or “upon.” Also, Gk. has def. article.

209. Luke 8:29. “and was driven by the demon into the wilderness” (NKJV); “and was driven of the devil into the wilderness” (KJV). Here is a clear example of the need to translate “daimonion” as “demon” rather than “devil.” “Devil” is the Gk. word, “diabolos,” yet the KJV translates both “daimonion” and “diabolos” as “devil.” The NKJV makes the distinction.

210. Luke 8:45. “multitudes” (NKJV); “multitude” (KJV). Gk. is plural.

211. Luke 8:46. “power” (NKJV); “virtue” (KJV). Same as Mark 5:30 above (#135).

212. Luke 8:49. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

213. Luke 8:55. “commanded that she should be given something to eat” (NKJV); “commanded to give her meat” (KJV). Did Jesus command that the girl be given “meat” to eat? Obviously, this is ambiguous in the KJV. The Gk. infinitive means “to eat.” The KJV translated the identical infinitive as “to eat” in Luke 12:45.

214. Luke 9:14. “in groups” (NKJV); “in a company” (KJV). Gk. is plural.

215. Luke 9:18. “crowds” (NKJV); “people” (KJV). Gk. is plural. Same as Luke 2:31 above (#185).

216. Luke 9:25. “and is himself destroyed or lost?” (NKJV); “and lose himself, or be cast away?” (KJV). The first verb, “apollumi” means “to destroy” and the second, “zemioo” means “to suffer loss.”

217. Luke 9:28. “the mountain” (NKJV); “a mountain” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

218. Luke 9:38. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

219. Luke 9:42. “the demon” (NKJV); “the devil” (KJV). Same as 8:29 above (#209).

220. Luke 9:43. “the majesty of God” (NKJV); “the mighty power of God” (KJV). It is one word in Gk. meaning “magnificence” or “majesty” (cf. Acts 19:27; II Pet. 1:16, KJV). KJV is ambiguous.

221. Luke 9:61. “who are at my house” (NKJV); “which are at home at my house” (KJV). KJV adds “at home” in dynamic equivalence.

222. Luke 10:6. “a son of peace” (NKJV); “the son of peace” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

223. Luke 10:19. “I will give you the authority” (NKJV); “I give unto you power” (KJV). Gk. words means “authority.” Clarity is necessary, for in the same verse, Jesus said, “and over all the power of the enemy,” where “dunamis” is used (see Mark 5:30 above, #135).

224. Luke 10:21. “Jesus rejoiced in the Spirit” (NKJV); “Jesus rejoiced in spirit”(KJV). Gk. has def. article and the NKJV properly capitalizes “Spirit” (referring to the Holy Spirit).

225. Luke 10:25. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

226. Luke 10:41. “you are worried” (NKJV); “thou art careful” (KJV). Same as Matt. 6:31 above (#28).

227. Luke 11:24. “he goes through dry places” (NKJV); “he walketh through dry places” (KJV). Gk. word means “to go through.” A different Gk. word means “walk.”

228. Luke 11:29. “it seeks a sign” (NKJV); “they seek a sign” (KJV). Gk. verb is third person singular.

229. Luke 11:33. “lamp...basket...lampstand” (NKJV); “candle... bushel... candlestick” (KJV). Same as Matt. 5:15 above (#20 & #21).

230. Luke 11:34. “The lamp of the body is the eye” (NKJV); “The light of the body is the eye” (KJV). The same word is translated “lamp” in the KJV at v. 33! A different Gk. word means “light.”

231. Luke 11:45. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

232. Luke 12:11. “do not worry” (NKJV); “take no thought” (KJV). Same as 10:41 above (#226 & #28).

233. Luke 12:15. “one’s life” (NKJV); “a man’s life” (KJV). Same as Matt. 8:28 above (#31).

234. Luke 12:22. Same as 10:41 above.

235. Luke 12:25. Same as 10:41 above.

236. Luke 12:26. Same as 10:41 above.

237. Luke 12:45. Same as 10:41 above.

238. Luke 13:14. “the Sabbath” (NKJV, first occur.); “the sabbath day” (KJV). No “day” in first occur.

239. Luke 13:16. Same as 13:14 above.

240. Luke 13:24. “through the narrow gate” (NKJV); “at the strait gate” (KJV). NKJV is closer to the prep., “dia” meaning “through.”

241. Luke 13:25. “and shut the door” (NKJV); “and hath shut to the door” (KJV). No prep. or infinitive in Gk.

242. Luke 13:31. “Herod wants to kill you” (NKJV); “Herod will kill thee” (KJV). Gk. verb means “to desire.” KJV is ambiguous.

243. Luke 13:32. “tell that fox” (NKJV); “and tell that fox” (KJV). No “and” in Gk.

244. Luke 13:33. “a prophet should perish outside of Jerusalem” (NKJV); “a prophet perish out of Jerusalem” (KJV). Gk. verb “exo” means “out of doors” or “outside.” The phrase in the KJV could mean either that a Jerusalem prophet would perish or that a prophet would perish outside of the city, and is thus ambiguous. The NKJV’s clarity also fits the context, where in the following verse (v. 34) Jesus accuses Jerusalem of killing the prophets. Jesus was saying that He needed to continue His journey in the villages toward Jerusalem for a few more days (vv. 22, 23) because Israel’s prophets are killed within the royal city itself.

245. Luke 13:34. Same as Matt. 23:37 above (#95).

246. Luke 14:1. Same as 13:14 above.

247. Luke 14:3. Same as 13:14 above. In 14:5, “day” is in the Gk. and appears in the KJV.

248. Luke 14:7. “He told a parable” (NKJV); “he put forth a parable” (KJV). Gk. verb, “lego” means “to speak” or “say.”

249. Luke 14:10. “Then you will have glory” (NKJV); “then shalt thou have worship” (KJV). Gk. word, “doxa” means “glory.” A different word means “worship.” The KJV suggests the worship of men!

250. Luke 14:34. Same as Matt. 5:13 above (#20).

251. Luke 17:1. “It is impossible that no offenses should come” (NKJV); “It is impossible but that offenses should come” (KJV). Gk. has the negative rather than the conjunction. NKJV is clear.

252. Luke 17:6. Same as Matt. 17:20 above (#65).

253. Luke 18:18. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as Matt. 9:11 above
(#37).

254. Luke 18:20. “murder” (NKJV); “kill” (KJV). Same as Matt. 5:21 above (#23).

255. Luke 18:36. “a multitude” (NKJV); “the multitude” (KJV). No def. article in Gk.

256. Luke 19:13. “Do business” (NKJV); “Occupy” (KJV). Gk. word means to be
employed in business or trade. KJV is ambiguous.

257. Luke 19:14. “sent a delegation after him” (NKJV); “sent a message after him” (KJV). Gk. word means “a body of ambassadors.”

258. Luke 19:32. “departed” (NKJV); “went their way” (KJV). Same as Matt. 20:4 above (#73).

259. Luke 19:39. Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

260. Luke 19:46. “a house of prayer” (NKJV); “the house of prayer” (KJV). No
def. article in Gk.

261. Luke 20:7. “did not know” (NKJV); “could not tell” (KJV). Same as Mark
11:33 above (#164).

262. Luke 20:16. “Certainly not!” (NKJV); “God forbid” (KJV). “God” is not a part of this expression in the KJV. It literally means, “may it not be!”

263. Luke 20:21. Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

264. Luke 20:28. Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

265. Luke 20:41. “the Christ” (NKJV); “Christ” (KJV). Def. article in Gk.

266. Luke 21:7a. “Teacher” (NKJV); “Master” (KJV). Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

267. Luke 21:7b. “when these things are about to take place” (NKJV); “when these things shall come to pass” (KJV). Gk. verb, “mello” means “to be on the point of.”

268. Luke 21:12. “up to the synagogues and prisons” (NKJV); “up to the synagogues, and into the prisons” (KJV). Only one preposition (“to”) in the Gk.

269. Luke 21:21. “enter her” (NKJV); “enter therein” (KJV). Gk. has the feminine pronoun.

270. Luke 21:28. “look up” (NKJV); “then look up” (KJV). No “then” in Gk.

271. Luke 22:11. Same as Matt. 9:11 above (#37).

272. Luke 22:45. “sleeping from sorrow” (NKJV); “sleeping for sorrow” (KJV).
Gk. prep. “apo” means “from.”

273. Luke 22:67. “If you are the Christ, tell us” (NKJV); “Art thou the Christ? tell us” (KJV). Not a question in Gk. Gk. has “ei su ei,” literally, “if you are.”

274. Luke 23:15. “has been done by Him” (NKJV); “is done unto him” (KJV). Gk. makes Jesus the subject rather than the object of the action.

275. Luke 23:35. “the Christ” (NKJV); “Christ” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

276. Luke 23:56. “the Sabbath” (NKJV); “the sabbath day” (KJV). No “day” here in Gk. The Friday crucifixion theory is supported from the KJV reading here. The translators, being Anglican, held to this theory.

277. Luke 24:25. “to believe in all that the prophets have spoken” (NKJV); “to believe all that the prophets have spoken” (KJV). Gk. has the prep. “epi” meaning “on,” “upon,” “in,” or “at.”

278. Luke 24:26. “the Christ” (NKJV); “Christ” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

279. Luke 24:35. “the breaking of bread” (NKJV); “breaking of bread” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.

280. Luke 24:46. “the Christ” (NKJV); “Christ” (KJV). Gk. has def. article.



CONCLUSION

The above list was a result of my own independent study of the New King James Version. My approach was to simply take the NKJV and the KJV and lay them along side of the KJV’s Textus Receptus for comparison. Every verse and every word of the NKJV and KJV was compared to every word of the underlying TR Greek. As time permits, this study may be expanded to John’s Gospel and the remainder of the NKJV New Testament.

The criticisms of the NKJV by King James Only advocates are mostly unfair and untrue. All translations must be evaluated on the basis of their accuracy to their own underlying texts. KJOs very rarely will do this, but will just compare to the KJV and reject what appears to be contrary to its “true” readings. The NKJV is admittedly not a perfect translation, and it, too, has its faults (like all translations). There are certainly places where the KJV has superior accuracy to the NKJV. But, KJOs are completely unwilling to give any credit where credit is due when the NKJV yields superior accuracy and even where it clarifies several plain ambiguities in the KJV.


If it is “the Textus Receptus” that King James Onlys really want to have translated, they should acknowledge and warmly welcome a translation that more accurately brings the readings of the TR into the English language. This, however, most if not all of them refuse to do because they have only a hypocritical, KJV-only agenda.

 

Mat 18:35 KJV So likewise shall my heavenly Father do also unto you, if ye from your hearts forgive not every one his brother their trespasses.

Mat 18:35 NKJV So My heavenly Father also will do to you if each of you, from his heart, does not forgive his brother his trespasses.

TR reads "autwn"

MT reads "autwn"

CT LEAVES THE PHRASE OUT!

BZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZ! WRONG AGAIN!

Matthew 22:10

LOL! ROFLOL! The word "hall" in the NKJV is supplied so the reader understands the guests were not part of the wedding party, bride and groom, but were in the hall and participating in the feast!

TR reads "ho gamos"

MT reads "ho gamos"

CT reads "ho gamos"

BZZZZZZZZZZZZ WRONG AGAIN!

Again we have seen Askjo fail to support his false claim that the NKJV is based on the MT.

Don't you get tired of being wrong all the time?

This is just too much. My sides are hurting from laughing so hard. I have to take a break for a while before I hurt myself laughing at this guy and his stupidity!

 

Erorrs translational in the NKJV.

 

Click here: The NKJV is a counterfeit.

 

Click here: The NKJV changed words.

 

Click here: The NKJV is a counterfeit. </font>[/QUOTE]Askjo, what is this proving? I could post more articles (such as the lengthy one I posted above) that would also rebut these, but that only serves to illustrate the point that translational difficulties exist in both the NKJV and the KJV.

 

Askjo, I have a Strong's before me, plus, there's the online version. I checked with both of them, and found that both Skan and Hank are right.

You holler that the NKJV doesn't always follow the TR. SO WHAT ? ? Where does GOD make any version of the TR our final written authority?

And WHICH VERSION of the TR would YOU recommend, and why? It's been revised umpteen times. And KJVO fave Dean John Burgon said the TR could still stand a THOROUGH revision.

 

Click here:
What about the NKJV?

 

He is your W/H man.