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Romans 3:22 namely, the righteousness of God through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction, Romans...
God loved mankind in this way, He gave His one of a kind Son so that everyone believing into Him would not perish but have eternal life.
See the non stop posts trying to hide corruption of the text? People are chosen through faith. Faith provides our access to the grace in which...
Quote without comment
Several translations add "to be" to the text, which reverses the actual meaning. Such corruption cannot be justified from grammar. OTOH, since 2...
Note the reply has nothing to do with the issue, just more deflection on display. What is the actual position, Romans 5:1-2 faith provided the...
According to some, it is not wrong to reverse the meaning of bible text. Go figure
But such absurdity is non-germane, the meaning was not just shifted, it was reversed, people of faith text was corrupted to people without faith....
Yet another "taint so" post. How does James 2:5 read in YLT? Weymouth New Testament? Websters Bible Translation? Darby Bible Translation?...
Not the issue. The "to be" is added to the text, not because of Greek grammar, so the "scholar" support is non existent. A word or phrase is not...
One of the principles of bible study is to accept their is only one intended message, one intended meaning. To say a verse says utmost patience,...
Every Greek scholar?
Thanks for responding! Many Calvinist leaning posters avoid taking a position, they just ask questions, then ridicule the answers. Did you...
Using this verse to justify bogus views, absurd views, nonsensical views is to misrepresent the intended message. Claiming God who could do...
Once again, a post addressing and disparaging another poster. No on topic content, just deflection
If your view is that "to be" was required, as opposed to "yet" or "as" by the Greek, it is nonsense.
Yet another you, you, you post. Preaching, even in a loud voice, is futile if the audience cannot hear. Basically Calvinists believe like...
Again, a wasted post. Does anyone believe "all Greek scholars translate the verse "to be rich" when the Greek scholars of the KJV did not?
The ESV does not put "to be" in italics, but the NKJV does, and the NASB does. The KJV does not insert "to be." Italics lets the reader know "to...
