1 John 5v12

just a reminder...this thread is a spin-off of the 1 Timothy 3:1 thread (in reading some responses, I don't think people are noticing that).

Some folk criticized the MV's in 1 Tim 3:1 for using the word "He" (which clearly refers to God). That was somehow evil. Yet the KJV omits the word "of God" and keeps only the word "Son." Now, it's obvious to Whom it refers.

But the same people who castigate some translations for one omission are strangely silent (or even supportive) of the same thing in another version.

I'm sorry, that's just plain inconsistent. If you're going to use that line of reasoning to criticize a version, then why not play by the same rules here?

(I had no problem with 1 Tim 3:1, and have no problem here).

 

Oh, it is much harder than:
Perfect
Perfecter
Perfectist

Psa 12:6 (KJV1611 Edition):
The wordes of the Lord are pure wordes:
as siluer tried in a fornace of earth
purified seuen times.

Personally I prefer:

Perfect
Perfecter1
Perfecter2
Perfecter3
Perfecter4
Perfecter5
Perfectist

Compare with:
Psa 12:6 (Geneva Bible, 1587 Edition):
The wordes of the Lord are pure wordes,
as the siluer, tried in a fornace of earth,
fined seuen folde.

 

Actually, I already did tell you which one is the correct rendering, in post #26, at least IMO. Didja' miss it??

http://www.baptistboard.com/showthread.php?t=42271&page=3

The 1769!

Ed

 

I have already told you they were both sufficient, but since that was not good enough for your standard, I will tell you they are both right, for they do not contradict one another.

In the same sense, which scroll was right in Jeremiah 36? The original scroll? Or that which Jeremiah created again, with additional words from God?

 

As for Jerry's scrolls, the first one was right while it existed. The second one, also from God, was also right. Had the first one still existed, it still woulda been right, while the 2nd one was right with more right material added.

 

The scrolls were two separate inspirations by God with material added to the second. This is not at all similar to having two "perfect" yet different renderings of the same Greek text. According to the notion that what is different is not the same, then both the 1611 and the 1769 KJV renderings cannot be the correct one - since they are diferent then one must be perfect while the other is errant. So which is the perfect rendering of 1 John 5:12 - the 1611 KJV or the 1769 KJV?

 

Since both of them got it right your question amounts to naught.

You want to dilly dally about one instant where a clarification is made, which is not anything different than the other, it is utter nonsense to think that there is any real difference.

Besides, I wouldn't put myself down the way you did above unless you like to be persistent about it.

 

So how is it you cannot understand that in the word of God where we find "Son" it is anything other than the Son of God???????

Talking about straining at gnats.

 

There is actually no difference. They both are correct, you're only making things up as if there is any difference.

 

Nothing "big", except you're carrying on a conversation about a totally different subject about another totally different verse. See what trying to discriminate between two, in the I John 5:12 example, esthetically alike examples can cause?

But since you want to include I Tmi 3:16 in this discussion, I can see where the clarity that "God" was manifest in the flesh is much more to be desired than "He". The reason being that, yes, Jesus was in the flesh, as well as manifest. But in the sense the JW's say Jesus was a created being and not God, then the KJB has it right exclusively to make the distinction of His being God.

Of course if you'd like to argure against that reasoning......:tonofbricks:

 

I would have to leave things in the hands of the Spirit , afterall, we should know that men are fallible, but the Spirit gives life and the letter kills.

So? I deduce it's more the preservation of the words that implicate the thought rather than what is accepted to be the same but usually gives the wrong impression upon the thoguht process.

God doesn't speak in any of man's tongues,per se, but men pen down the moving of God upon their hearts to communicate without error the mind of God. That means the more precise the words the more accurate the words are.