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1Cor 7:36-38 - Which translation is best?

Discussion in '2000-02 Archive' started by eric_b, Sep 26, 2002.

  1. eric_b

    eric_b <img src="http://home.nc.rr.com/robotplot/tiny_eri

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    Hey, I want a scholarly opinion here! Which translations handles 1Cor 7:36-38 the best? Or rather, which interpretation of this passage is the best? NASB adds the word "daughter" in italics, so the NASB translators think this passage refers to men deciding whether their daughters would marry. ESV changes the word to "betrothed" (and has a footnote) so the ESV translators think this passage refers to a man deciding whether to marry a woman or not to marry her so she may remain single. Various other translations do one or the other, and some simply present the passage ambiguously and let the reader decide.

    So, basically, I have a two-fold question:

    1) Which translation handles this passage the best?

    2) What is the correct interpretation of this passage (daughters or betrothed)?

    I would be especially interested to hear from people who have spent time studying the Greek.

    much thanks,
    Eric
     
  2. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
    Site Supporter

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    Hi Eric,

    I have a theory.

    Sometimes when a verse is ambiguous, I wonder if God meant it to mean either (which ever answers to the individual circumstance.

    HankD
     
  3. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    I think you're looking at the place where the greek word is parthenos, which literally translated means "fair maiden". It's also implied to mean an unmarried daughter, or a virgin, depending on syntax usage.
     
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