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2 Questions

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Jordan Kurecki, Dec 25, 2013.

  1. Jordan Kurecki

    Jordan Kurecki Well-Known Member
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    1.does your FINAL AUTHORITY exist on earth today in pure, inerrant, tangible form in any language?

    2. If yes, what and where is it? And if no, why not?
     
  2. jonathan.borland

    jonathan.borland Active Member

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    The term "inerrant" as formulated theologically by Warfield always only applied to the "autographs" of Scripture, and thus it's rather ironic that your question itself is fallacious. Here's a question for you: Who was the first in the Battle-for-the-Bible debates to apply the term inerrant to anything other than the so-called original autographs?
     
  3. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    The Bible. Inerrancy does not speak to copiest errors but the propositions found in scripture. When scripture makes a claim whether regarding history, science, etc. It is fully reliable and without error. And your question is in no way fallacious.
     
  4. Jordan Kurecki

    Jordan Kurecki Well-Known Member
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    And where can I get a copy of this infallible inerrant pure bible?
     
  5. Jordan Kurecki

    Jordan Kurecki Well-Known Member
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    Answer the OP.
     
  6. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    Any Bible books store although I fail to understand the word pure. BY the way if this thread is about KJVO then you need to know I do not support such absurdities.
     
    #6 Revmitchell, Dec 25, 2013
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 25, 2013
  7. Jordan Kurecki

    Jordan Kurecki Well-Known Member
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    And is each translation as infallible as the other?
     
  8. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    I am just going to bow out. I did not realize I was talking with a KJVO advocate. I thought maybe you were looking for rational discussion. I was wrong.
     
  9. Jordan Kurecki

    Jordan Kurecki Well-Known Member
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    Why won't you answer the simple question?

    That's not very rational.
     
  10. Squire Robertsson

    Squire Robertsson Administrator
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    Jordan, your problem is your questions are in the same category as the on "Yes or no, have you stopped beating your wife?" They are impossible for anyone who does not hold to the inspiration\inerrency of the KJV to give what you would consider a viable answer.
     
  11. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Active Member
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    What simple question?

    A question that may depend upon the begging the question fallacy by assuming hidden premises to be true without proving them would not be simple nor valid. An invalid question should not be answered. A question can be properly answered or countered by another question or questions. You have not made any sound case that demonstrates your question to be simple or valid.

    What is your definition of final authority?

    Since the final authority on earth would have existed before 1611, how could it be a 1611 translation?

    Since other greater authorities were used by later editors to correct and revise the 1611 KJV, it again shows that the 1611 KJV could not be the final authority.

    Since the final authority on earth existed before 1611, what was that FINAL AUTHORITY on earth before 1611 in pure, inerrant, tangible form in any language that was used for the making of secondary authorities such as the KJV?
     
  12. Scarlett O.

    Scarlett O. Well-Known Member
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    Jordan, let’s say that you and I and someone else attend a Bible study together.

    You bring your King James (although I’m not sure which one you carry) and I bring my Holman and the other someone brings his NASB.

    Are these three Bibles as an "authority" pure? If by pure, you mean 100% truth, then yes, all three of us have a pure authority.

    Inerrant authority? If by inerrant, you mean 100% truth, then yes, again all three of us have one. If by inerrant, you mean exact perfect/infallible translations of the originals, then no – none of us have one.

    Tangible? Yes. We all have a tangible authority.

    Inspired authority? No, none of us have one.

    Preserved authority? If by preserved you mean that the translating team had no personal agenda or bias and that they gave an honest and scholarly translation and relied on God to lead them, then we all have one.

    These words below aren't mine, but they express my viewpoint on translations of the originals.

     
    #12 Scarlett O., Dec 26, 2013
    Last edited: Dec 26, 2013
  13. annsni

    annsni Administrator
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    CBD has some good prices right now and I'm sure Amazon does as well. I know the KJV and ESV are free in digital form, if you prefer to use it on one of your devices.


    :godisgood: :wavey:
     
  14. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    yes, my final authority is found in almighty God, father/Son/Holy Spirit, as I am indwelt by the Holy Spirit, and he is my final authority on what I am to do and say and act... Better way to see that is he SHOULD be my final authority, but too many times quench and grieve Him having full control over me!

    the complete and full written authority to me is the word of god, the holy Bible, which ANY version does have minor corruptions/errors/scribal errors/copying etc, is all sifficient and authoratative for all my doctrines and practices...

    Good enough for you?
     
  15. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    God gave sinful man His perfect Words. Actual God-breathed words (with syllables and meaning). He has preserved His actual God-breathed words in documents made by man.

    Sadly, because man is sinful and not infallible, no two of these man-made documents agree 100%. So we must compile all of them, evaluate differences where they disagree and discern what God said (distinguished from what man said).

    Then from that blend of texts try to move it from God's chosen language into weak receptor languages including English. And English is ever-evolving so that words 500 years ago might mean just the opposite today.

    My job as an elder who teaches/preaches the Word is like Neh 8:8 says:
    "They read from the book, from God's Torah"
    "translating it"
    "explaining the meaning"
    "so that the people understood what was read"
     
  16. thisnumbersdisconnected

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    KJV Onlyism is irrational, therefore the source of the question in the OP makes it not a question at all, but an attempt to start an argument that will go nowhere. I'm with Rev. After reading this "thread," I'll pass, thank you.

    NASB, by the way, is more accurate a translation than the KJV, as that is what both are -- translations. Neither is inerrant, neither is infallible, but they don't have to be, because the Word of God lives on both their pages.
     
  17. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    think that we need to recognise that while the Bible is infallible rvelation from God to us, our ultimate source of authority is He whom they point towards, Jesus Christ!

    As its authority in final sense derives from Him!
     
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