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A question about time refereces in the ESV!

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by EaglewingIS4031, Jul 18, 2004.

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  1. EaglewingIS4031

    EaglewingIS4031 New Member

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    I posted this on another board about a month ago and have only recieved 1 reply. I was wondering if any of ya'll had insight. I am just a lay man tryng to learn and grow in grace. The reply I got was somewhat helpful but I would like more info!

    -It is my understanding that the synoptic gospels use Jewish time references & John uses Roman time.

    However the footnotes in the ESV in John refer to Jewish time. (Jn 1:39, Jn 19:14, etc.) This would seem to cause a contridiction.

    The foot notes in two of my other translations (NASB & HCSB) refer to Roman time in John.

    The my NIV, NKJV, & KJV are not footnoted but the study notes with the NIV study bible sugest the John probably used Roman time.

    Why does the ESV do this? Is there an historical reason for the ESV to do this or is it just a mistake or oversight?

    Eaglewing!
     
    #1 EaglewingIS4031, Jul 18, 2004
  2. Nomad

    Nomad New Member

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    Strangely enough, I've been reading John in the ESV for the past few days. It's always been my understanding that no one knows for sure which system John used. Some commentators/translators assume Jewish (like the other gospels), while others assume Roman. The ESV footnotes aren't necessarily mistaken, then.

    By the way, I used to live in Baton Rouge, so "hello" to Eaglewing from a fellow Louisiana boy, now living out west.
     
    #2 Nomad, Jul 18, 2004
  3. TomVols

    TomVols New Member

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    go to www.esvbible.org and Crossway has a way where you can ask translational questions. Their replies are swift and often very helpful.
     
    #3 TomVols, Jul 18, 2004
  4. EaglewingIS4031

    EaglewingIS4031 New Member

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    Thanks Tom;
    I did that this is the reply I recieved.
    He did not say when that committee would meet next.

    My copies of the NLT, TEV,and CEV, all agree with the ESV. I've used the NASB primaraly for along time so I thought John used Roman time. But now I'm begining to think it is the HCSB and NASB that I shouldn't trust on this issue.

    However, It seems that if John used the same time system then JN 19:14 would conflict with Mathew 27:45.

    Was he on the cross at noon or at Pilate's trial?
    Mark says he was crucified at 9:00 am.

    Thanks
    Eaglewing
     
    #4 EaglewingIS4031, Jul 21, 2004
  5. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    I'd say He was crucified by Roman time, but as it was at the instigation of the Jews, who were concerned with the observance of Passover Week, so Jewish time figured in a lot of the events.

    We know Jesus ate the Passover meal after sunset, was arrested prolly around 9PM, was interrogated & abused all night, and Pilate, who was most likely not happy at being kept up most of the night, wanted the whole affair to end. I'll agree He was crucified at roughly 9 AM, yielding up His spirit at roughly 3 PM.(All this occurred within the same 24 hours, the Passover meal day.)
     
    #5 robycop3, Jul 21, 2004
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