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A quick KJV question

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by thjplgvp, Jan 18, 2007.

  1. thjplgvp

    thjplgvp Member

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    I am not looking for debate just info. You all can do the debating.

    Were the revisions to the KJV primarily single word revisions or were there some large portions revised and did any of these revision s affect biblical doctrine? I guess that is two questions, sorry.

    I would appreciate a quick answer on this I need the info post-haste.

    Thank you one and all

    thjplgvp
     
  2. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    KJV changes from 1611 to today were mostly spelling and punctuation changes. There were a lot of them, but all were insignificant.
     
  3. thjplgvp

    thjplgvp Member

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    thank you C4K
     
  4. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Active Member
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    Many of the revisions in later KJV editions involved changing the form of a word itself: sometimes changing a singular noun to a plural or vice versa, changing the tense of a verb, changing "my" or "thy" to "mine" or "thine," changing "you" to "ye" or "ye" to you," etc. There are over 50 verses where one word was added in later editions and around 20 verses where one word was omitted or removed in later editions. At least a couple times a name of God was added so that would likely be considered a doctrinal change. There are some verses were two words were added, and a few verses where three words were added. The longest addition was six words (Eccl. 8:17--yet he shall not find it). The longest omission is the removal of an extra 21 words in the 1611 edition at Exodus 14:10. There were around 2,000 changes that affect the sound of words from the 1611 edition of the KJV until the present Oxford KJV edition in the Scofield Reference Bible.

    There were also changes in the capitalization of many words. Many more words were capitalized in 1611 than in today's KJV editions. Since a few of these words concerning capitalization involves a noun that may refer to God, it is sometimes considered a change that involves doctrine.
     
  5. thjplgvp

    thjplgvp Member

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    Logos,

    Thank you as well for great info.

    thjplgvp
     
  6. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    Spelling, capitalization, punctuation and grammar of course make up the bulk of the thousands of changes. But there is a "myth" that there were no REAL changes that made any difference and that the KJV enjoyed by us today is identical to the 1611 Anglican Version.

    Not true.

    Of the revisions, nearly 150 were MAJOR changes between the AV1611 and the common KJV revisions of today (the 1762 Cambridge or 1769 Oxford).

    Example - were the 3 hebrew men thrown into a fiery furnace or a BURNING fiery furnace?

    Did Peter's great confession of Jesus in Matthew 16:18 say they He is Christ or He is THE Christ?

    Is the Levitical offering unleavened cakes or AN unleavened cake?

    for lists of the KJV revisions, see http://members.aol.com/pilgrimpub/revision.htm

    Trust this helps
     
  7. thjplgvp

    thjplgvp Member

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  8. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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  9. thjplgvp

    thjplgvp Member

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    Deacon I was not aware of that thread when I posted the info. I subscribe to a by-monthly email publication called "As I See It" by Doug Kutilek he has addressed the KJV issue beofre and I posted my question here and also sent him an email asking for his imput. He in turn sent Ricks info and then Rick contacted me after Doug gave him my email address.

    I had no idea Logos was Rick. I say all of this to say I was not promoting he or his book but just posted it for general info.

    thjplgvp
     
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